New 12 hr Initial Training for the Manufactured Home
Installer Qualifier
Instructions to complete this course
Notes for answering
the following questions:
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Use the Manufactured
Home Installer Manual for questions 1-192
Reference pages 3-4
for questions 1-11
1. In accordance with Comm 21.40 (1), effective _____________, the installation of a manufactured home produced on or after April 1, 2007 shall comply with procedures acceptable to the department.
a. March 1, 2007
b. April 1, 2007
c. February 1, 2007
d. March 31, 2007
2. This manual contains a set of procedures that are acceptable to the department that addresses those items identified in _________________________.
a. Comm 21.40 (1) (b)
b. Comm 22.40 (1) (b)
c. Comm 20.40 (1) (b)
d. Comm 23.40 (1) (b)
3.
All manufactured homes manufactured on or after _______________ and installed
in
a. March 1, 2007
b. April 1, 2007
c. February 1, 2007
d. March 31, 2007
Definitions
4. “______________________” means the department of commerce.
a. Local inspector
b. State inspector
c.
d. Department
5. “___________________” means a complete manufactured home which when installed provides all the facilities for year–round residential occupancy.
a. Manufactured home section
b. Dwelling
c. Home
d. Manufactured home unit
6. “_______________________” has the meaning given in s. 101.91 (2), Stats.
a. Manufactured home section
b. Dwelling
c. Home
d. Manufactured home
7. Local authority having jurisdiction “_______” means the department.
a. Local inspector
b. State inspector
c.
d. LAHJ
8. “________________” means a map delineating the flood hazard area and adopted by a county.
a. Flood hazard area
b. Base flood elevation
c. Flood hazard map
d. Flood plain
9. “_____________” means the greater of either (1) the special flood hazard area shown on the flood insurance rate map or (2) the area subject to flooding during the design flood and shown on a county’s flood hazard map, or otherwise legally designated.
a. Flood hazard area
b. Base flood elevation
c. Flood hazard map
d. Flood plain
10. “________________________” means the elevation of the base flood, including wave height, relative to the datum specified on a county’s flood hazard map.
a. Flood hazard area
b. Base flood elevation
c. Flood hazard map
d. Flood plain
11. Prior to the initial installation of a new manufactured home, the ________________ is responsible to determine whether the home site lies wholly or partly within a special flood hazard area as shown on the county’s flood insurance rate map, flood boundary and floodway map, or flood hazard boundary map.
a. Inspector
b. owner
c. permit applicant
d. both b & c
Reference page 8 for questions 12-14
12. What is the roof snow load for the north area?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. none of the above
13. What is the roof snow load for the south area?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. none of the above
14. What is the roof snow load for the middle area?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. none of the above
PART 3280 MANUFACTURED HOME CONSTRUCTION AND SAFETY STANDARDS
Reference pages 1-2 for questions 15-20
Definitions
15. ____________________ means
a specific anchoring assembly device designed to transfer home anchoring loads
to the ground.
a.
Ground Anchor
b.
Diagonal Tie
c.
Anchoring system
d.
none of the above
16. ____________________ means
a tie intended to resist horizontal or shear forces, but which may resist
vertical, uplift, and overturning forces.
a.
Ground Anchor
b.
Diagonal Tie
c.
Anchoring system
d.
none of the above
17. __________________ means
a combination of anchoring equipment and anchor assemblies that will, when
properly designed and installed, resist the uplift, overturning, and lateral
forces on the manufactured home, and on its support and foundation system.
a.
Ground Anchor
b.
Diagonal Tie
c.
Anchoring system
d.
none of the above
18. __________________
means
all components of the anchoring and support systems, such as piers, footings,
ties, anchoring equipment, anchoring assemblies, or any other equipment,
materials, and methods of construction that support and secure the manufactured
home to the ground.
a.
Anchoring Equipment
b.
Anchor Assembly
c.
Stabilizing Devices
d.
none of the above
19._________________________ means
any device or other means designed to transfer home anchoring loads to the
ground.
a.
Anchoring Equipment
b.
Anchor Assembly
c.
Stabilizing Devices
d. none of the above
20. __________________________ means
ties, straps, cables, turnbuckles, chains, and other approved components,
including tensioning devices that are used to secure a manufactured home to
anchor assemblies.
a.
Anchoring Equipment
b.
Anchor Assembly
c.
Stabilizing Devices
d. none of the above
Reference pages 7-8 for questions 21-26
21. A manufacturer must provide with each new manufactured home, _______________________that are consistent with these Model Installation Standards for the installation of manufactured homes.
a.
DAPIA-approved
designs
b.
instructions
c.
both a & b
d.
neither a or b
22. The installation instructions must
provide protection to residents of the manufactured homes that _____________
the protection provided by these Model Installation Standards and must not take
the manufactured home out of compliance with the Federal Manufactured Home
Construction and Safety
a.
equals
b.
exceeds
c. both a & b
d.
neither a or b
23. When
an installer does not provide support and anchorage in accordance with the approved
manufacturer's installation instructions, or encounters site (such as areas
that are subject to flood damage or high seismic risk) or other conditions that
prevent the use of the instructions, the installer must obtain special
site-specific instructions from the ____________________for the support and
anchorage of the manufactured home.
a.
manufacturer
b.
use a design by a registered professional engineer
c.
registered architect
d.
all of the above
24. The
installation instructions must provide at least one method for temporarily
supporting each transportable section of a manufactured home, to prevent
structural and other damage to the structure, when those section(s) are
temporarily sited at the________________________________________.
a.
manufacturer’s facility
b.
retailer’s lot
c.
the home site
d.
all of the above
25.
An alteration, as defined in § 3282.7 of this chapter, must not affect the
ability of the basic manufactured home to comply with the MHCSS and the alteration
must not impose additional loads to the manufactured home or its foundation
unless the alteration is included in the __________________.
a.
manufacturer's DAPIA-approved designs
b.
installation instructions
c.
designed by a registered professional engineer or architect
d.
all of the above
26 _____________________ of any equipment that affects the installation of the home made by the manufacturer, retailer or installer prior to completion of the installation by an installer must equal or exceed the protections and requirements of these Model Installation Standards, the MHCSS (24 CFR part 3280) and the Manufactured Home Procedural and Enforcement regulations (24 CFR part 3282).
a..
Additions
b.
Modifications
c.
replacement or removal
d. all of the above
Reference pages 11-16 for questions 27-58
Definitions
27. The elevation of the base flood,
including wave height, relative to the datum specified on a LAHJ’s flood
hazard map.
a.
Base flood elevation
b.
Base flood
c.
Arid Region
d.
Approved
28.
When used in connection with any material, appliance or construction, means
complying with the requirements of the Department of Housing and Urban
Development.
a.
Base flood elevation
b.
Base flood
c.
arid Region
d.
approved
29. An
area subject to 15 inches or less of annual rainfall.
a.
Base flood elevation
b.
Base flood
c.
Arid Region
d.
Approved
30.
The flood having a one percent chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given
year.
a.
Base flood elevation
b.
Base flood
c.
Arid Region
d.
Approved
31.
A tie intended to resist horizontal or shear forces, but which may resist
vertical, uplift, and overturning forces.
a.
Comfort cooling certificate
b.
Crossover
c.
Design Approved Primary Inspection Agency
d.
Diagonal tie
32. A
State or private organization that has been accepted by the Secretary in
accordance with the requirements of part 3282, subpart H of this chapter, which
evaluates and approves or disapproves manufactured home designs and quality
control procedures.
a.
Comfort cooling certificate
b.
Crossover
c.
Design Approved Primary Inspection Agency
d.
Diagonal tie
33. Utility
interconnections in multi-section homes that are located where the sections are
joined. Crossover connections include heating and cooling ducts, electrical
circuits, and water pipes, drain plumbing, and gas lines.
a.
Comfort cooling certificate
b.
Crossover
c.
Design Approved Primary Inspection Agency
d.
Diagonal tie
34. The
greater of either: (1) the special flood hazard area shown on the flood
insurance rate map; or (2) the area subject to flooding during the design flood
and shown on a LAHJ’s flood hazard map, or otherwise legally designated.
a.
Flood hazard area
b.
Flood hazard map
c.
Footing
d.
Ground anchor
35.
A specific anchoring assembly device designed to transfer home anchoring loads
to the ground.
a.
Flood hazard area
b.
Flood hazard map
c.
Footing
d.
Ground anchor
36. That
portion of the support system that transmits loads directly to the soil.
a.
Flood hazard area
b.
Flood hazard map
c.
Footing
d.
Ground anchor
37.
A map delineating the flood hazard area and adopted by a LAHJ.
a.
Flood hazard area
b.
Flood hazard map
c.
Footing
d.
Ground anchor
38. Included
in a list published by a nationally recognized testing laboratory, inspection
agency, or other organization concerned with product evaluation that maintains
periodic inspection of production of listed equipment or materials, and whose
listing states either that the equipment or material meets nationally
recognized standards or has been tested and found suitable for use in a
specified manner.
a.
Listed
b.
Labeled
c.
Installation standards
d.
Installation instructions
39.
A label, symbol, or other identifying mark of a nationally recognized testing
laboratory, inspection agency, or other organization concerned with product
evaluation that maintains periodic inspection of production of labeled
equipment or materials, and by whose labeling is indicated compliance with
nationally recognized standards or tests to determine suitable usage in a
specified manner.
a.
Listed
b.
Labeled
c.
Installation standards
d.
Installation instructions
40. Reasonable
specifications for the installation of a new manufactured home, at the place of
occupancy, to ensure proper siting, the joining of all sections of the home,
and the installation of stabilization, support, or anchoring systems.
a.
Listed
b.
Labeled
c.
Installation standards
d.
Installation instructions
41.
DAPIA-approved instructions provided by the home manufacturer that accompany
each new manufactured home and detail the home manufacturer requirements for
support and anchoring systems, and other work completed at the installation
site to comply with these Model Installation Standards and the Manufactured
Home Construction and Safety Standards in 24 CFR part 3280.
a.
Listed
b.
Labeled
c.
Installation standards
d.
Installation instructions
42.
The State, city, county, city and county, municipality, utility, or
organization that has local responsibilities that must be complied with during
the installation of a manufactured home.
a. LAHJ
b. Lowest floor
c. Manufactured Home
d.
Manufactured home gas supply connector
43. A listed connector designed for
connecting the manufactured home to the gas supply source.
a. LAHJ
b. Lowest floor
c. Manufactured Home
d.
Manufactured home gas supply connector
44. A
structure, transportable in one or more sections, which in the traveling mode
is 8 body feet or more in width or 40 body feet or more in length or which when
erected on site is 320 or more square feet, and which is built on a permanent
chassis and designed to be used as a dwelling with or without a permanent
foundation when connected to the required utilities, and includes the plumbing,
heating, air-conditioning, and electrical systems contained in the structure.
a. LAHJ
b. Lowest floor
c. Manufactured Home
d.
Manufactured home gas supply connector
45. The floor of the lowest enclosed area of a manufactured home. An unfinished or flood resistant enclosure, used solely for vehicle parking, home access or limited storage, must not be considered the lowest floor, provided the enclosed area is not constructed so as to render the home in violation of the flood-related provisions of this standard.
a. LAHJ
b. Lowest floor
c. Manufactured Home
d.
Manufactured home gas supply connector
46. Any
freestanding roof or shade structure, installed or erected above a manufactured
home or any portion thereof.
a.
Ramada
b.
Pier
c.
Model installation Standards
d.
Manufactured home site
47.
That portion of the support system between the footing and the manufactured
home, exclusive of shims. Types of piers include, but are not limited to: (1)
manufactured steel stands; (2) pressure-treated wood; (3) manufactured concrete
stands; (4) concrete blocks; and (5) portions of foundation walls.
a.
Ramada
b.
Pier
c.
Model installation Standards
d.
Manufactured home site
48. The
installation standards established in part 3285 of this chapter pursuant to
section 605 of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 5404.
a.
Ramada
b.
Pier
c.
Model installation Standards
d.
Manufactured home site
49.
A designated parcel of land designed for the installation of one manufactured
home for the exclusive use of the occupants of the home.
a.
Ramada
b.
Pier
c.
Model installation Standards
d.
Manufactured home site
50.
Each of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of
Puerto Rico, Guam, the Virgin Islands, the Canal Zone, and American Samoa.
a. State
b. Support system
c. tie
d. Ultimate load
51. Pilings,
columns, footings, piers, foundation walls, shims, and any combination thereof
that, when properly installed, support the manufactured home.
a. State
b. Support system
c. tie
d. Ultimate load
52. Straps, cable, or securing devices used to connect the manufactured home to anchoring assemblies.
a. State
b. Support system
c. tie
d. Ultimate load
53. The absolute maximum magnitude of load that a component or system can sustain, limited only by failure.
a. State
b. Support system
c. tie
d. Ultimate load
54. The
maximum recommended load that may be exerted on a component or system
determined by dividing the ultimate load of a component or system by an
appropriate
a.
Working load
b.
Wind Zone
c.
Vertical tie
d.
utility connection
55.
The areas designated on the Basic Wind Zone Map, as further defined in §
3280.305(c) of the Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards in this
chapter that delineate the wind design load requirements as determined by the
fastest mile wind speed (mph) within each area.
a.
Working load
b.
Wind Zone
c.
Vertical tie
d.
utility connection
56.
A tie intended to resist uplifting and overturning forces.
a.
Working load
b.
Wind Zone
c.
Vertical tie
d.
utility connection
57. The
connection of the manufactured home to utilities that include, but are not
limited to, electricity, water, sewer, gas, or fuel oil.
a.
Working load
b.
Wind Zone
c.
Vertical tie
d.
utility connection
58.
The manufactured home should be leveled before completion of the installation or
the contractor can leave the leveling for the home owners to complete.
a.
true
b.
false
SUBPART
B – PRE-INSTALLATION CONSIDERATIONS
Reference
pages 16-18 for questions 59-65
59. Fire separation distances must be in
accordance with the requirements of Chapter 6 of NFPA 501A, 2003 Edition. The
installation instructions could clearly indicate this requirement in a separate
section and might caution installers to take into account any local
requirements on fire separation.
a.
true
b.
false
60. The
provisions of this section apply to the initial installation of new
manufactured homes located wholly or partly within a flood hazard area.
a.
true
b.
false
61. Prior
to the initial installation of a new manufactured home, the buyer is
responsible to determine whether the manufactured home site lies wholly or
partly within a special flood hazard area as shown on the LAHJ’s Flood
Insurance Rate Map, Flood Boundary and Floodway Map, or Flood Hazard Boundary
Map.
a.
true
b.
false
62. Manufactured
homes may be installed in a wind zone that exceeds the design wind loads for
which the home has been designed as evidenced by the wind zone indicated on the
home's data plate.
a.
true
b.
false
63. Manufactured
homes may be located in a roof load zone that exceeds the design roof load for
which the home has been designed as evidenced by the roof load zone indicated
on the home's data plate. Refer to § 3285.315 for Special Snow Load
Conditions.
a.
true
b.
false
64. Manufactured
homes may be installed in a thermal zone that exceeds the thermal zone for
which the home has been designed as evidenced by the thermal zone indicated on
the heating/cooling certificate and insulation zone map.
a.
true
b.
false
65. The
manufacturer shall provide the heating/cooling information and insulation zone
map on the home's data plate.
a.
true
b.
false
SUBPART
C – SITE PREPARATION
Reference pages 19-23 for questions 66-85
66. To
help prevent settling or sagging, the foundation must be constructed on firm,
undisturbed soil or fill compacted to at least ____ percent of its maximum
relative density.
a.
70
b,
80
c.
90
d.
100
67.
All organic material such as grass, roots, twigs, and wood scraps may be removed
in areas where footings are to be placed. After removal of organic material,
the home site should be graded or otherwise prepared to ensure adequate
drainage in accordance with § 3285.203.
a.
true
b.
false
68. The
soil classification and bearing capacity of the soil must be determined before
the foundation is constructed and anchored.
a.
true
b.
false
69. The
soil classification and bearing capacity must be determined by the following
method.
a.
Soil tests that are in accordance with generally accepted engineering practice
b.
Soil records of the applicable LAHJ
c.
A pocket penetrometer
d.
all of the above
70.
Soil classifications and
bearing capacities for “hard pan” (psf) would be?
a.
2000
b.
4000
c.
1500
d.
1000
71. Soil classifications and bearing capacities for
“course gravel/cobbles” (psf) would be?
a.
2000
b.
4000
c.
1500
d.
1000
72. Soil classifications and bearing capacities for
“firm to stiff clays and silts” (psf) would be?
a.
2000
b.
4000
c.
1500
d.
1000
73. Soil classifications and bearing capacities for
“medium dense course sands” (psf) would be?
a.
2000
b.
4000
c.
1500
d.
1000
74. If
the soil appears to be composed of peat, organic clays, or uncompacted fill, or
appears to have unusual conditions, a __________________must determine the soil
classification and maximum allowable soil bearing capacity.
a.
a registered professional geologist
b.
registered professional engineer
c.
registered architect
d.
all of the above
75. Drainage
must be provided to direct surface water away from the home and to prevent
water build-up under the home.
a.
true
b.
false
76. The
home site should be graded as shown in Figure 3285.203, or other methods, such as
a drain tile and automatic sump pump system, may be provided to remove any
water that may collect under the home.
a.
true
b.
false
77.
All drainage must be diverted away from the home and must slope a minimum of
one-half inch per foot away from the foundation for the first 5 feet.
a.
true
b.
false
78. Where
property lines, walls, slopes, or other physical conditions prohibit the slope
required in question 77, the site should be provided with drains or swales or
otherwise graded to possible drain water away from the structure.
a.
true
b.
false
79. The
home, where sited, may be protected from surface runoff from the surrounding
area.
a.
true
b.
false
80. Manufacturers
should specify in their installation instructions whether the home is designed
for the installation of gutters and downspouts. When the home is so designed
and gutters and downspouts are installed, the runoff must be directed under the
home.
a.
true
b.
false
81. If
the space under the home is to be enclosed withskirting or other materials, a
vapor retarder must be installed to cover the ground under the home, even if
the home is installed in an arid region with dry soil conditions.
a.
true
b.
false
82. Vapor retarder material. A minimum
of _____ mil polyethylene sheeting or its equivalent must be used.
a.
3
b.
4
c.
6
d.
all of the above
83.
The entire area under the home must be covered with the vapor retarder as noted
in 3285.204(a) except for areas under open porches, decks, and recessed
entries. Joints in the vapor retarder must be overlapped at least ____ inches
and sealed.
a.
3
b.
4
c.
6
d.
none of the above
84. The
vapor retarder may be placed_________________________________.
a.
directly beneath footings
b
otherwise installed around or over footings placed at grade
c.
around anchors or other obstructions
d.
all of the above
85.
Voids or tears in the vapor retarder that are larger than 4” should be
repaired.
a.
true
b.
false
SUBPART
D – FOUNDATIONS
Reference pages 23-56 for questions 86-146
86. Foundations
for manufactured home installations must be designed and constructed in
accordance with this subpart and must be based on ______________________the
home was designed to withstand as shown on the home’s data plate.
a.
site conditions
b.
home design features
c.
the loads
d.
all of the above
87.
Foundation systems that ____________________ may be used when verified by
engineering data and designed in accordance with § 3285.301(d), consistent
with the design loads of the MHCSS.
a.
are not pier
b.
footing type configurations
c.
both a & b
d.
neither a or b
88.
Details, plans, and test data must be designed and certified by a
____________________ and must not take the home out of compliance with the
MHCSS.
a.
registered professional engineer
b.
registered architect
c.
both a & b
d.
none of the above
89.
Alternative foundation
systems. Alternative foundation systems or designs are permitted in
accordance with either of the following: (Page
23)
a. Systems or designs must be manufactured and installed in
accordance with their 24 listings by a nationally recognized testing agency
based on a nationally recognized testing protocol; or
b. System
designs must be prepared by a registered professional engineer or a registered
architect in accordance with acceptable engineering practice.
c.
both a & b
d.
none of the above
90. In
flood hazard areas, the foundation, anchoring s and support systems must be
capable of resisting loads associated with design flood and wind events, and
homes must be installed on foundation supports that are designed and anchored
to prevent floatation, collapse or lateral movement of the structure.
a.
true
b.
false
91. Manufacturer’s
installation instructions must indicate whether:
A. The foundation specifications have been designed and
installed for flood resistant considerations, and, if so, the conditions of
applicability for velocities, depths, or wave action.
b.
The foundation specifications are not designed to address flood loads.
c.
both a & b
d.
none of the above
92. The
piers used must be capable of transmitting the vertical __________ loads to the
footings or foundation.
a.
live
b.
dead
c.
both a & b
d.
none of the above
93.
Acceptable piers —
materials specification. Piers are permitted to be
_______________. (Page 24)
a.
concrete blocks
b.
pressure-treated wood with a water borne preservative
c.
adjustable metal or concrete piers
d.
all of the above
94.
Manufactured piers must be ____________________for the required vertical load
capacity, and, where required by design, for the appropriate horizontal load
capacity.
a.
listed
b.
labeled
c.
both a & b
d.
none of the above
95. The
load bearing capacity for each pier must be designed to include consideration
for the ______________________. (Page
25)
a.
dimensions of the home
b.
the design dead and live loads
c.
the spacing of the piers
d.
all of the above
96.
Pier Configuration-
Load-bearing (not decorative) concrete blocks must have nominal dimensions of
at least 8 inches × 8 inches × 16 inches. (Page 30)
a.
true
b.
false
97. Pier Configuration- The concrete blocks
must be stacked with their hollow cells aligned horizontally.
a.
true
b.
false
98.
Pier Configuration- When
piers are constructed of blocks stacked side by side, each layer must be at
right angles to the preceding one, as shown in Figure B of §3285.306
a.
true
b.
false
99. Pier Configuration- Caps
must be solid concrete or masonry at least 4 inches in nominal thickness, or
hardboard lumber at least 2 inches in thickness; or be corrosion-protected
minimum one-half inch thick steel; or be of other listed materials.
a.
true
b.
false
100. Pier Configuration- All
caps must be of the same length and width as the piers on which they rest.
a.
true
b.
false
101.
Pier Configuration- When
split caps are used on double-stacked blocks, the caps must be installed with
the short dimension across the joint in the blocks above.
a.
true
b.
false
102.
Gaps. Any
gaps that occur during installation between the main chassis beam and
foundation support system must be filled, by using one of the following
methods: (Page 30)
a. Nominal 4 inch × 6 inch x 1 inch shims are
permitted to be used to level the home and fill any gaps between the base of
the main chassis beam and the top of the pier cap
b. Shims must be used in pairs as shown in Figures A and B
of §3285.306 and must be driven in tightly so that they do not occupy
more than one inch of vertical height
c.
Hardwood plates no thicker than 2 inches are used to fill in remaining vertical
gaps
d.
all of the above
103.
Manufactured pier heights.
Manufactured pier heights must be selected so that the
adjustable risers do not extend more than ____ inches when finally positioned.
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
6
104.
A minimum clearance of ___ inches must be maintained between the lowest member of
the main frame (I-beam or channel beam) and the grade under all areas of the
home. (Page 31)
a.
4
b.
8
c.
12
d.
18
105.
Frame piers less than _____ inches high are permitted to be constructed of
single, open, or closed-cell concrete blocks, 8 inches × 8 inches ×
16 inches, when the design capacity of the block is not exceeded.
a.
24
b.
36
c.
12
d.
18
106.
Using the criteria from question 105- The frame piers must be installed so
that the short sides are at right angles to the supported I-beam, as shown in
Figure A of this section.
a.
true
b.
false
107.
Using the criteria from question 105- The concrete blocks must be stacked
with their hollow cells aligned vertically and must be positioned at right
angles to the footings.
a.
true
b.
false
108.
Using the criteria from question 105- Vertical offsets from the top to the
top of the pier must not exceed one-half inch.
a.
true
b.
false
109.
Using the criteria from question 105- Mortar is required as specified in the
installation instructions and is always required by the registered professional
engineer or the registered architect.
a.
true
b.
false
110.
Frame piers 36 inches to 67
inches high and corner piers. All frame piers between 36 inches and
67 inches high and all corner piers over three blocks high must be constructed
out of double, interlocked concrete blocks as shown in Figure B of this
section, when the design capacity of the block is not exceeded. (page 32)
a.
true
b.
false
111.
Frame piers 36 inches to 67
inches high and corner piers. Horizontal offsets from the top to the
bottom of the pier must not exceed ____ inch.
a.
½
b.
1
c.
2
d.
4
112.
All piers over 67 inches high.
Piers over 67 inches high must be designed by a
_____________________________ in accordance with acceptable engineering
practice. (Page 33)
a.
registered professional engineer
b.
registered architect
c.
both a & b
d.
none of the above
113.
All piers over 67 inches
high. Mortar is required for concrete block piers unless otherwise
specified by the design.
a.
true
b.
false
114.
Piers required _____________________________ are permitted to be constructed of
single open-cell or closed-cell concrete blocks, with nominal dimensions of 8
inches × 8 inches × 16 inches, to a maximum height of 54 inches, as
shown in Figure A of this section, when the design capacity of the block is not
exceeded. (page 33)
a.
at mate-line supports
b.
perimeter piers
c.
piers at exterior wall openings
d.
all of the above
115.
Piers used for perimeter support must be installed with the short dimension
parallel to the perimeter rail.
a.
true
b.
false
116.
Manufactured piers must be _______ to the pier manufacturer installation
instructions. (Page 34)
a.
listed
b.
labeled
c.
installed
d.
all of the above
117.
The location and spacing of piers depends upon the dimensions of the home, the
live and dead loads, the type of construction (single- or multi-section),
I-beam size, soil bearing capacity, footing size, and such other factors as the
location of doors or other openings.
a.
true
b.
false
118.
Piers supporting the frame must be no more than _____ inches
from both ends and not more than _____ inches center to center under the main rails.
a.
18, 110
b.
20, 115
c.
24, 120
d.
none of the above
119.
Perimeter pier or other supports must be located as follows:
On both sides of side wall exterior doors (such as entry, patio, and sliding
glass doors) and any other side wall openings of 48 inches or greater in width,
and under load-bearing porch posts, factory installed fireplaces, and wood
stoves).
a.
true
b.
false
120.
Perimeter pier or other supports must be located as follows: For roof live
loads of ____ psf or greater, a professional engineer or architect must
determine the maximum sidewall opening permitted without perimeter pier or
other supports.
a.
20
b.
30
c.
40
d.
none of the above
121.
Materials approved for footings must provide equal load-bearing capacity and
resistance to decay as required by this section. Footings must be placed on
undisturbed soil or fill compacted to ___ percent of maximum relative density. (Page 38)
a.
70
b.
80
c.
90
d.
100
122.
Acceptable types of footings.
(1) Concrete. Footings are to be either: (i) 4-inch nominal precast concrete pads meeting or
exceeding ASTM C 90–02, Standard Specification for Load
Bearing Concrete Masonry Units, without reinforcement, with at least a
28-day compressive strength of 1,200 pounds per square inch (psi). (Page 41)
a.
true
b.
false
123.
Acceptable types of footings.
(1) Concrete. 6-inch minimum poured-in-place concrete pads, slabs, or
ribbons with at least a 28-day compressive strength of ________ pounds per square
inch (psi). Cast-in-place concrete footings may also require reinforcing steel
based on acceptable engineering practice, the design loads, and site specific
soil conditions.
a.
2000
b.
2500
c.
3000
d.
4000
124.
Acceptable types of footings.
Pressure-treated wood. Pressure-treated wood footings must
consist of a minimum of two layers of nominal 2 inch thick pressure-treated
wood, a single layer of nominal ¾-inch thick pressure-treated plywood
with a maximum size of 16 inches by 16 inches.
a.
true
b.
false
125.
Acceptable types of footings.
Pressure-treated wood. least two layers of ¾-inch thick
pressure-treated plywood for sizes greater than 16 inches by 16 inches. Plywood
used for this purpose is to be rated exposure 1 or exterior sheathing in
accordance with PS-1-95, Construction and Industrial Plywood. (page 41)
a.
true
b.
false
126.
Footings placed in freezing climates must be designed using methods and
practices that prevent the effects of frost heave by one of the following
methods: (page 42)
a.
Conventional footings
b.
monolithic slab systems
c.
Insulated foundations
d.
all of the above
127.
Using the table (e) on page 43-What is the minimum size footing in inches
required for a maximum capacity of 7800 lb and with soil capacity of 1000 psf
and a 8” x 16” pier?
a.
24 x 24
b.
30 x 30
c.
36 x 36
d.
none of the above
128.
Using the table (e) on page 43-What is the minimum size footing in inches
required for a maximum capacity of 7800 lb and with soil capacity of 1500 psf and
a 8” x 16” pier?
a.
24 x 24
b.
30 x 30
c.
36 x 36
d.
none of the above
129.
Using the table (e) on page 43-What is the minimum size footing in inches
required for a maximum capacity of 7800 lb and with soil capacity of 4000 psf
and a 16” x 16” pier?
a.
24 x 24
b.
30 x 30
c.
36 x 36
d.
none of the above
130.
What is the minimum thickness for a unreinforced cast-in-place footing for
question 127 above?
a.
8”
b.
10”
c.
12”
d.
none of the above
131.
What is the minimum thickness for a unreinforced cast-in-place footing for
question 128 above?
a.
8”
b.
10”
c.
12”
d.
none of the above
132.
What is the minimum thickness for a unreinforced cast-in-place footing for
question 129 above?
a.
8”
b.
10”
c.
12”
d.
none of the above
133.
Support systems that combine both load-bearing capacity and uplift resistance
must also be sized and designed for all applicable wind loads. (Page 45)
a.
true
b.
false
134.
Special snow load conditions.
In general, foundations for homes designed for and located
in areas with roof live loads greater than ____ psf must be designed by the
manufacturer for the special snow load conditions in accordance with acceptable
engineering practice. (Page 45)
a.
20
b.
30
c.
40
d.
none of the above
135.
Where site or other conditions prohibit the use of the____________________, a
registered professional engineer or registered architect must design the
foundation for the special snow load conditions.
a.
code book
b.
footing manual
c.
manufacturer’s instructions
d.
none of the above
136.
Ramadas may be used in areas with roof live loads greater than ___ psf. Ramadas
are to be self- supporting except that any connection to the home must be for
weatherproofing only.
a.
20
b.
30
c.
40
d.
none of the above
137.
Anchoring instructions. After
blocking, the manufactured home must be secured against the wind by use of
anchor assembly type installations or by connecting the home to the alternative
foundation system. Leveling is required after the anchoring process. (Page 46)
a.
true
b.
false
138.
All anchoring and foundation systems must be capable of _______the loads that
the home was designed to withstand required by part 3280, subpart D of this
chapter, that the home was designed to withstand as shown on the home’s
data plate.
a.
holding down
b.
meeting
c.
turning over
d.
none of the above
139.
The installation instructions are to include at least the following information
and details for anchor assembly type installations: (Page 46)
a.
The maximum spacing for installing diagonal ties and any required vertical ties
or straps to ground anchors
b. The minimum
and maximum angles or dimensions for installing diagonal ties or straps to
ground anchors and the main chassis members of the manufactured home
c. Requirements
for connecting the diagonal ties to the main chassis members of the
manufactured home. If the diagonal ties are attached to the bottom flange of
the main chassis beam, the frame must be designed to prevent rotation of the
beam
d.
all of the above
140.
The installation instructions are to include at least the following information
and details for anchor assembly type installations:
a.
Requirements for longitudinal and mating wall tie downs and anchorage
b. The method of
strap attachment to the main chassis member and ground anchor including
provisions for swivel-type connections
c. The methods for protecting vertical and
diagonal strapping at sharp corners by use of radius clips or other means
d.
all of the above
141.
Number and location of ground
anchors. (1) Ground anchor and anchor strap spacing
must be:
a.
No greater than the spacing shown in Tables 1 thru 3 of this section and
Figures A and B in this
section
b. Designed by a registered engineer or architect in
accordance with acceptable engineering practice and the requirements of the
MHCSS
c.
all of the above
d.
none of the above
142.
Longitudinal anchoring. Manufactured
homes must be stabilized against wind in the longitudinal direction in all Wind
Zones. Manufactured homes located in _______ must have longitudinal ground
anchors installed on the ends of the manufactured home transportable section(s)
or be provided with alternative systems that are capable of resisting wind
forces in the longitudinal direction. (page 48)
a.
wind zone 1
b.
wind zone 2
c.
wind zone 3
d.
only b & c
143.
A ________________________ must design alternative longitudinal anchoring
methods in accordance with acceptable engineering practice.
a.
licensed builder
b.
licensed manufactured home installer
c.
registered professional engineer or registered architect
d.
all of the above
144.
If sidewall, over-the roof, mate-line, or shear wall straps are installed on
the home, they must be connected to an _________________. (Page 55)
a.
footing
b.
pier
c.
foundation
d.
anchoring assembly
145.
Flood hazard areas. In
flood hazard areas, the piers, anchoring, and support systems must be capable
of resisting all loads associated with design___________________________. (Page 56)
a.
flood and wind events
b.
combined flood and wind events
c.
both a & b
d.
none of the above
146.
Supplemental instructions for optional equipment or features must be approved
by the _______ as not taking the home out of conformance with the requirements
of this part or part 3280 of this chapter and included with the manufacturer
installation instructions.
a.
department
b.
local inspector
c.
DAPIA
d.
none of the above
SUBPART
F – OPTIONAL FEATURES (page 56)
147.
Comfort cooling systems. When
not provided and installed by the home manufacturer, comfort cooling systems
must be installed according to the ___________________________. (Page 56)
a.
appliance manufacturer’s installation instructions
b.
registered professional engineer
c.
registered architect
d.
all of the above
148.
The BTU/hr rated capacity of the site-installed air conditioning equipment must
not exceed the air distribution system’s rated BTU/hr capacity as shown
on the home’s compliance certificate.
a.
true
b.
false
149.
Circuit rating. If
a manufactured home is factory provided with an exterior outlet to energize
heating and/or air conditioning equipment, the branch circuit rating on the tag
adjacent to this outlet must be less than or equal to the minimum circuit amperage
identified on the equipment rating plate.
a.
true
b.
false
150.
Fireplace and wood-stove chimneys and air inlets must be site approved by the
inspector for use with manufactured homes and must be installed in accordance
with their listings. (Page 58)
a.
true
b.
false
151. Flood
hazard areas. Appliances installed on the manufactured home site must be
_____________.
a.
anchored
b.
elevated to
c.
above the same elevation as the lowest elevation of the lowest floor of the
home
d.
all of the above
152.
Appliance air inlets and exhausts must be located at or above the same
elevation as the lowest elevation of the lowest floor of the home.
a.
true
b.
false
153.
The dryer vents must exhaust to the exterior of the home and terminate inside the
perimeter skirting installed around it.
a.
true
b.
false
154.
All wood skirting within ___ inches of the ground must be pressure treated in
accordance with AWPA Standard U1 for Use Category 4A, Ground Anchor Contact Applications
or be naturally resistant to decay and termite infestations. (Page 60)
a.
4
b.
6
c.
8
d.
12
155.
A crawlspace with skirting must be provided with ventilation openings. The
minimum net area of ventilation openings must not be less than one square foot
(ft2) for every ______ square feet (ft2)
of the home’s floor area.
a.
100
b.
150
c.
200
d.
300
156.
The total area of ventilation openings may be reduced to one square foot (ft2)
for every 1,500 square feet (ft2)
of the home’s floor area where a uniform __-mil polyethylene sheet
material or other acceptable vapor retarder is installed according to §
3285.204 on the ground surface beneath the entire floor area of the home.
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
none of the above
157.
Crawlspace ventilation openings must be placed as high as practicable above the
ground.
a.
true
b.
false
158.
Crawlspace ventilation openings must be located on at least four sides to
provide cross ventilation.
a.
true
b.
false
159.
Crawlspace access opening(s) not less than __ inches in width and __ inches in
height and not
less
than three square feet (ft2) in area must be provided and must be
located so that any utility
connections
located under the home are accessible.
a.
18, 22
b.
16, 24
c.
18, 24
d.
all of the above
160.
Dryer vents, air conditioning condensation drains, and combustion air inlets
inside the crawlspace must pass through the skirting to the outside. (Page 60)
a.
true
b.
false
161.
Home manufacturers may provide specific installation instructions for the
proper field assembly of manufacturer-supplied and shipped loose ducts,
plumbing, and fuel supply system parts that are necessary to join all sections
of the home and are designed to be located underneath the home.
a.
true
b.
false
162.
When the local water supply pressure exceeds ___ psi to the manufactured home,
a pressure-reducing valve must be installed. (Page 61)
a.
60
b.
70
c.
80
d.
none of the above
163.
A ___________________ shutoff valve must be installed between the water supply
and the inlet.
a.
identified
b.
accessible
c.
both a & b
d.
none of the above
164.
The water riser for the shutoff valve connection must be located ___________ to
the home.
a.
underneath
b.
adjacent
c.
above
d.
both a & b
165.
Freezing protection. Only
pipe heating cable ______________is permitted to be used, and it must be
installed in accordance with the cable manufacturer installation instructions. (Page 62)
a.
listed for manufactured home use
b.
approved by an engineer
c.
approved by a architect
d.
all of the above
166.
The water system must be inspected and tested for leaks after completion at the
site. The water heater must be disconnected when using an air-only test.
a.
true
b.
false
167.
Drainage system. Drain
lines must not slope less than ___ inch per foot unless otherwise noted on the
schematic diagram, as shown in Figure 1 to § 3285.604. (Page 65)
a.
1/8
b.
¼
c.
½
d.
all of the above
168.
Drainage system. slope
of one-eight inch per foot may be permitted when a ________ is installed at the
upper end of the run. (page 63)
a.
vent
b.
clean out
c.
both a & b
d.
none of the above
169.
The gas piping system in the home is designed for a pressure that is at least
___ inches of water column [5.8 oz./in2 or
0.36 psi] and not more than ____ inches of water column [8 oz./in2
or
0.5 psi].
a.
5, 10
b.
8, 16
c.
10, 14
d.
none of the above
170.
Gas piping systems. Tools must not be required to connect or remove the
flexible connector quick disconnect.
a.
true
b.
false
171.
Ductwork connections. Galvanized
metal straps or ______________ listed to UL 181 A or UL 181 B must be used
around the duct collar and secured tightly to make all connections.
a.
tape
b.
mastics
c.
duct tape
d.
both a & b
172.
Ductwork connections.
If metal straps are used, they must be secured with galvanized sheet metal
screws. Metal ducts must be fastened to the collar with a minimum of ______galvanized
sheet metal screws equally spaced around the collar.
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
all of the above
173. Ductwork
connections The duct must be suspended or supported above the ground by
straps or other means that are spaced at a maximum distance not to exceed
_______ or as otherwise permitted by the installation instructions. (Page 65)
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
all of the above
174.
Lights and fixtures. Grounding. All the exterior
lighting fixtures and ceiling fans installed per 67 § 3285.702(a) must be
grounded by a fixture-grounding device or by a fixture-grounding wire. (Page 67)
a.
true
b.
false
175.
Exterior lights. (1) The
junction box covers must be removed and wire-to-wire connections must be made
using listed wire connectors.
a.
true
b.
false
176.
Exterior lights. The
lighting fixture may be caulked around its base to ensure a watertight seal to
the sidewall.
a.
true
b.
false
177.
Ceiling fans. (1) Ceiling-suspended
(paddle) fans must be connected to a junction box listed for ceiling fan
application and installed with the trailing edges of the blades at least _____
above the finished floor. (Page 68)
a.
6’ 2”
b.
6’ 4”
c.
7’
d.
none of the above
178. Electrical. The installation
instructions are to indicate that each manufactured home must be subjected to
the following tests: (page 69)
a. An electrical continuity test to ensure
that metallic parts are effectively bonded.
b. Operational
tests of all devices and utilization equipment except water heaters, electric
ranges, electric furnaces, dishwashers, clothes washers/dryers, and portable
appliances to demonstrate that they are connected and in working order.
c. For electrical equipment installed or completed during
installation, electrical polarity checks must be completed to determine that
connections have been made properly. Visual verification is an acceptable
electrical polarity check.
d.
all of the above
SUBPART
I – EXTERIOR AND INTERIOR CLOSE UP (page 70)
179.
Exterior close-up strips/trim may be fastened securely and sealed with exterior
sealant.
a.
true
b.
false
180.
Joints and seams. All
joints and seams in exterior wall coverings that were disturbed during location
of the home must be made weatherproof.
a.
true
b.
false
181.
Prior to installing the siding, the optional polyethylene sheeting covering
exterior walls for transit could be completely removed.
a.
true
b.
false
182.
The home manufacturer must provide materials and designs for mate-line gaskets
or other methods designed to resist the entry of ________________ at all
mate-line locations exposed to the exterior.
a.
air, water & water vapor
b insects
c.
rodents
d.
all of the above
183.
At a minimum, shipped-loose wall paneling necessary for the joining of all
sections of the home must be installed by using polyvinyl acetate (PVA)
adhesive on all framing members and fastened with minimum one-inch long staples
or nails at ___ inches on center panel edges and ____ inches on center in the
field. (Page 72)
a.
4, 8
b.
5, 10
c.
6, 12
d.
none of the above
SUBPART
J –OPTIONAL INFORMATION FOR INSTALLATION INSTRUCTIONS (page 73)
184.
Issuance of permits. All
necessary LAHJ fees should be paid and permits should be obtained, which may
include verification that LAHJ requirements regarding encroachments in streets,
yards, and courts are obeyed and that permissible setback and fire separation
distances from property lines and public roads are met. (Page 75)
a.
true
b.
false
185.
Alterations. After
to making any alteration to a home or its installation, contact the LAHJ to
determine if plan approval and permits are required.
a.
true
b.
false
186. Installation
of on-site structures. Each accessory building and structure
is designed to support all of its own live and dead loads, unless the
structure, including any attached garage, carport, deck, and porch, is to be
attached to the manufactured home and is otherwise____________________.
a.
included in the installation instructions
b.
designed by a registered professional engineer
c.
registered architect
d.
all of the above
187.
Utility system connections.
It is required that the manufacturer’s installation
instructions suggest that: The LAHJ be consulted before connecting the
manufactured home to any utilities, and only qualified personnel familiar with
local requirements be permitted to make utility site connections and conduct
tests. (Page 76)
a.
true
b.
false
188.
Drainage system. The
main drain line be connected to the site’s sewer hookup, using
a
__________________________.
a.
elastomeric coupler
b.other
methods acceptable to the LAHJ
c.
both a & b
d.
neither a or b
189.
Orifices and regulators. Before
making any connections to the site supply, the outlet orifices of all
gas-burning appliances be checked to ensure they are correctly set up for the
type of gas to be supplied.
a.
true
b.
false
190.
Gas appliance startup
procedures. The LAHJ should be consulted concerning
the following gas appliance startup procedures: (Page 77)
a. One
at a time, opening equipment shutoff valves, lighting pilot lights when
provided, and adjusting burners and spark igniters for automatic ignition systems
in accordance with each appliance manufacturer instructions.
b. Checking the operation of the furnace
and water heater thermostats.
d.
neither a or b
191.
Tank installation
requirements. In flood hazard areas, the oil storage tank should be
__________________________or above the design flood elevation, or anchored and
designed to prevent flotation, collapse, or permanent lateral movement during
the design flood.
a.
anchored
b.
elevated to
c.
both a & b
d.
neither a or b
192.
Leak test procedure. Before
the system is operated, it should be checked for leaks in the ___________ in
accordance with NFPA 31, Standard for the Installation of Oil Burning
Equipment, 2001or the requirements of the LAHJ, whichever is more stringent.
a.
tank
b.supply
piping
c.
both a & b
d.
neither a or b
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5 Licensing questions 193-267
Subchapter I — General Requirements
Comm 5.01 Application. (1) Application for a license,
certification or registration or a license, certification or registration
examination covered under this chapter shall be submitted on
a form prescribed by the department.
Note: Applications and related forms for licenses, certifications or registrations
covered under subchapters II to VII and IX of this chapter are available from the Division
of Safety and Buildings at
608/261−8500 and 608/264−8777 (TTY), or at the Safety and Buildings’ Web
site at commerce.wi.gov/SB/. Applications for certifications or registrations covered
under subchapter VIII of this chapter are available from the Division of Environmental
and Regulatory Services at
608/266−7874 and 608/264−8777 (TTY), or at the Web sites for petroleum
programs and PECFA at commerce.wi.gov.
(2) An application for a license, certification or registration
which either requires or recognizes the attendance at or completion
of educational courses as a qualification for the license, certification
or registration shall be accompanied by such evidence,
including but not limited to transcripts, that verifies fulfillment of
the prerequisite.
(3) Pursuant to s. 101.02 (20) (b) and (21) (b), Stats., the
department may not issue or renew any license, certification or
registration under this chapter unless the applicant for the license,
certification or registration includes his or her social security
number, or in the case of a license, certification or registration for
a business, the applicant includes the federal employer identification
number. The department shall consider the failure by the
applicant to provide a social security number or a federal
employer identification number as an incomplete application and
shall not process the application further until the appropriate number
is provided.
(4) A business having multiple locations covered under one
federal employer identification number applying for any of the
following licenses, certifications or registrations need not obtain
a separate license, certification or registration for each location:
(a) Dwelling contractor financial responsibility.
(b) Electrical contractor.
(c) UDC inspection agency.
(d) HVAC contractor.
(e) PECFA consulting firm.
(f) Tank specialty firm
193. Application for a license, certification or registration or a license, certification or registration examination covered under this chapter shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the _______.
a. contractor
b. supplier
c. department
d. none of the above
194. A business having multiple locations covered under one federal employer identification number applying for any of the following licenses, certifications or registrations must always obtain a separate license, certification or registration for each location.
a. true
b. false
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.02 Fees. (1) (a) Fees required for the various
licenses, certifications or registrations and their processing under
this chapter shall be determined in accordance with Table 5.02,
except as provided in par. (b).
(b) 1. Pursuant to s. 145.05, Stats., a person who holds a master
plumber license, master plumber−restricted license, journeyman
plumber license or journeyman plumber−restricted license and
who is employed by a city of the first, second or third class as a
plumbing inspector is not required to submit a license fee in order
to renew his or her license.
2. A person who applies to renew his or her master plumber
license, master plumber−restricted license, journeyman plumber
license or journeyman plumber−restricted license without the
license fee as permitted under subd. 1. shall provide evidence that
he or she is a plumbing inspector for a first, second or third class
city with the application for renewal.
Note: The exemption of not having to pay a license fee does not relieve an individual
of fulfilling all other obligations or responsibilities to renew the license such as
continuing education requirements.
(2) Fees required under this chapter for the various licenses,
certifications or registrations or their processing examinations
shall not be refundable.
195. Fees required under this chapter for the various licenses, certifications or registrations or their processing examinations shall always be refundable.
a. true
b. false
196. The exemption of not having to pay a license fee does always relieve an individual of fulfilling all other obligations or responsibilities to renew the license such as continuing education requirements.
a. true
b. false
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.03 Petitions for variance. An individual may
submit a petition for variance to any rule in this chapter in accordance
with ch. Comm 3.
Note: Many of the rules relating to credentials reflect specific statutory requirements;
in such cases the department is not able to grant a petition for variance if it
would supersede a statutory requirement.
History: Cr. Register, October, 1996, No. 490, eff. 11−1−96.
Comm 5.04 Processing times. (1) An application for
a license, certification or registration covered under this chapter
shall be granted or denied by the department within 21 calendar
days after the department receives all of the application materials
necessary to obtain the license, certification or registration.
Note: Pursuant to s. 227.116, Stats., the failure by the department to make a determination
on an application results in the department having to prepare and file a
report with the permit information center of the department. The failure by the
department to make a determination on an application does not relieve a person from
the obligation to comply with the requirements or qualifications of the license, certification
or registration or to secure the license, certification or registration.
(2) (a) If the license, certification or registration application
information is insufficient, the department shall request additional
information within 21 calendar days of receipt of the application.
(b) If an applicant does not respond to a request by the department
for additional information within 3 months after the date of
the request, the department shall make a determination on the
application based upon the information on hand.
197. An individual may submit a petition for variance to any rule in this chapter in accordance with ch. Comm 33.
a. true
b. false
198. An application for a license, certification or registration covered under this chapter shall be granted or denied by the department within 30 calendar days after the department receives all of the application materials necessary to obtain the license, certification or registration.
a. true
b. false
199. If the license, certification or registration application information is insufficient, the department shall request additional information within 30 calendar days of receipt of the application.
a. true
b. false
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.05 Mailing. (1) Unless otherwise provided by
law, all orders, notices and other papers may be served by the
department by first class mail at the address on file with
the department
(2) A license, certification or registration holder shall be
responsible for notifying the department of any change in mailing
address.
no longer than that specified in Table 5.06.
(2) A license, certification or registration issued under this
chapter shall expire at midnight on the day or date of expiration
of the term specified in Table 5.06.
200. A license, certification or registration issued under this chapter may expire at midnight on the day or date of expiration of the term specified in Table 5.06.
a. true
b. false
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.07 Renewal. (1) (a) Except under s. Comm
5.96, a notice of renewal shall be mailed by the department to a
license, certification or registration holder at least 30 calendar
days prior to the expiration of the license, certification or registration.
(b) Failure to receive a notice for renewal of a license, certification
or registration shall not be considered as an excuse or good
cause for failure to renew a license, certification or registration
prior to the expiration of the license, certification or registration.
(2) (a) Except as provided in par. (b), upon receipt of the
renewal application from the department, a person may apply to
renew his or her license, certification or registration provided an
application, a license, certification or registration fee and evidence
of all renewal obligations, if any, are submitted to the
department prior to the expiration date of the license, certification
or registration.
Note: Qualification obligations for renewal are specified under the appropriate
license, certification or registration category sections.
(b) 1. A person may apply to renew his or her license, certification
or registration in accordance with par. (a) no later than one
term after expiration of the license, certification or registration as
conditions:
a. An application fee as specified in s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02
shall accompany the renewal application.
b. Any continuing education credit obtained after the time
frame specified under s. Comm 5.08 (3) (a), but prior to the one−
term deadline for renewal as specified in Table 5.06, that is needed
to fulfill the renewal obligations shall be documented and filed
with the department on a form prescribed by the department.
Note: The form to document late continuing education credit may be obtained
from the Safety and Buildings Division,
53707−7082, telephone 608/261−8500.
2. The submission of a form under subd. 1. b. to the department
shall include a $25.00 processing fee.
(c) A person who files for renewal more than one term after
expiration of his or her license, certification or registration may be
reinstated by filing with the department an administrative fee of
$200.00, an application, and the application fee and the license,
certification or registration fee specified in s. Comm 5.02, Table
5.02. The department may also require demonstration of competence
by various methods including, but not limited to, written or
oral examination, documentation of relevant work experience in
other jurisdictions, or documentation of education or experience
in the field. Any education or examination required by the department
may not be more extensive than the requirements in effect
at the time of the request for reinstatement.
201. A person who files for renewal more than one term after expiration of his or her license, certification or registration may be reinstated by filing with the department an administrative fee of $________ .
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. none of the above.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.08 Continuing education. (1) PROGRAM
SPECIFICATIONS. (a) Only courses, programs and seminars
approved in writing by the department shall be used for credit to
fulfill continuing education requirements.
(b) 1. Requests for a course, program or seminar to be recognized
for approval shall be submitted in writing to the department.
2. Requests for approval shall include sufficient information
to determine if the course, program or seminar complies with this
subsection.
3. The department shall review and make a determination on
a request for approval within 21 calendar days of receipt of the
request and information necessary to complete the review.
(c) 1. Thirty minutes of attendance in an approved course, program
or seminar shall be deemed equal to 0.5 hours of acceptable
continuing education.
2. Continuing education credit for attendance in approved
continuing education courses, programs or seminars in other than
30 minute increments shall be rounded down to the next half hour.
(d) Courses, programs and seminars to be considered for
approval towards continuing education credit shall relate to the
skills and knowledge of one or more license, certification or registration
categories.
(e) 1. The department may impose specific conditions in
approving a course, program or seminar for continuing education
credit, including limiting credit to specific license, certification or
registration categories.
2. a. The approval of a course, program or seminar for continuing
education credit shall expire 5 years after the date of
approval.
b. Approval of courses, programs or seminars for continuing
education credit may be renewed. Renewal shall be in accordance
with par. (b).
3. The department may revoke the approval of a course, program
or seminar for continuing education credit for any false
statements, misrepresentation of facts or violation of the conditions
on which the approval was based. The department may not
revoke the approval of a course, program or seminar less than 30
calendar days prior to the course, program or seminar being held.
(f) 1. The individual or organization which had obtained the
course, program or seminar approval shall maintain an attendance
record of those individuals who have attended and completed the
course, program or seminar.
2. The attendance record shall include all of the following:
a. The course name.
b. The course identification number assigned by the department.
c. The date or dates the course was held or completed.
d. The name of each attendee.
e. The name of each license, certification or registration held
by the attendee for which the course applies.
f. The license, certification or registration number assigned
by the department of each attendee.
3. A copy of the attendance record shall be forwarded by the
person or organization which had obtained the course, program or
seminar approval to the department within 14 calendar days after
completion of the course or program.
(2) EVIDENCE OF COMPLIANCE. Each license, certification or
registration holder shall retain evidence of compliance with continuing
education requirements throughout the license, certification
or registration period for which continuing education credit
was required for renewal of the license, certification or registration.
(a) The department shall accept as evidence of compliance
original or copies of documents, certified by the individual or
organization providing the course, program or seminar, indicating
attendance and completion of the continuing education credit.
(b) The department may require a license, certification or registration
holder to submit evidence of compliance for the continuing
education credit which was required to renew the license, certification
or registration.
(3) CONTINUING EDUCATIONAL CYCLE. (a) Except as provided
under s. Comm 5.07 (2) (b), for those license, certification or registration
categories which require continuing educational credit
for renewal, the license, certification or registration holder shall
obtain the necessary amount of continuing educational credit at
least 3 months prior to the expiration date of the license, certification
or registration as specified in Table 5.06.
(b) Except as provided under s. Comm 5.07 (2) (b), the time
period during which a license, certification or registration holder
may obtain continuing education credit to fulfill the renewal
obligations shall commence 3 months prior to the expiration date
of the previous license, certification or registration term.
(c) The attendance of a continuing education course, program
or seminar in order to fulfill late renewal obligations under s.
Comm 5.07 (2) (b) may not be credited toward more than one
renewal cycle for a specific license, certification or registration.
202. Only courses, programs and seminars approved in writing by the department shall be used for credit to fulfill continuing education requirements.
a. true
b. false
203. certification or registration categories which require continuing educational credit for renewal, the license, certification or registration holder shall obtain the necessary amount of continuing educational credit at least ____ months prior to the expiration date of the license, certification or registration as specified in Table 5.06.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
204. Each license, certification or registration holder is not liable for retaining evidence of compliance for continuing education requirements throughout the license, certification or registration period for which continuing education credit was required for renewal of the license, certification or registration.
a. true
b. false
205. The department may not revoke the approval of a course, program or seminar less than ____ calendar days prior to the course, program or seminar being held.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 60
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.09 Examinations. (1) For those license, certification
or registration categories which require examination, the
department shall conduct at least 4 license, certification or registration
examinations annually for each license, certification or
registration category at times and locations specified by the
department.
(2) An application and fee for a license, certification or registration
that requires an examination shall be received by the
department at least 30 calendar days prior to the day of the
examination. The department may postpone the applicant’s
appearance to another examination date if any of the following
occur:
(a) The applicant fails to have the application on file with the
department within the required time.
(b) The application information or required qualifications are
incomplete.
(c) The examination center is filled to capacity.
(3) Upon verification of the application and the required qualifications,
the department shall notify an applicant in writing of
the date, time and place of the examination.
(4) (a) An applicant for license, certification or registration
examination shall provide a photo identification or other appropriate
evidence to gain admittance to an examination.
(b) An applicant shall bring to a license, certification or registration
examination all necessary materials as specified by the
department.
(c) 1. Except as provided in subd. 2., an applicant who fails
to appear at a scheduled license, certification or registration
examination without giving notice to the department at least 24
hours before the examination shall be considered to have failed
the examination and shall be required to submit a re−examination
application and examination fee.
2. The department may waive the 24−hour notification
requirement of subd. 1. due to inclement weather, if the applicant
notifies the department the day of the examination.
(5) The examination for a license, certification or registration
shall be based on a job analysis of the knowledge, skills and abilities
associated with the license, certification or registration. The
examination shall include all of the following subject matter:
(a) Regulations and standards governing the work or activities
required or permitted under the license, certification or registration.
(b) Theories, principles, and practices associated with the
activities required or permitted under the license, certification or
registration.
(6) (a) A grade of 70% or greater in each part of a license, certification
or registration examination shall be considered a passing
grade.
(b) 1. Except as provided in subd. 2., an applicant failing a part
of a multi−part license, certification or registration examination
shall be required to retake only those parts failed.
2. An applicant who does not pass all required parts of a multi−
part license, certification or registration examination within
one year after the date of the initial examination shall apply, retake
and pass all parts of the license, certification or registration
examination.
(7) (a) The department shall inform an applicant of the results
of an examination in writing within 21 calendar days from the
examination date.
(b) Upon notification of failing a license, certification or registration
examination, an applicant may request another examination
in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.
(c) 1. An applicant who has successfully passed a license, certification
or registration examination may submit an application
and the license, certification or registration fee as specified under
s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02 for the appropriate license, certification
or registration within 3 months after the date the department had
mailed the results of the examination.
2. Failure to apply for a license, certification or registration
in accordance with subd. 1., shall necessitate the applicant to
apply, retake and pass another license, certification or registration
examination in order to obtain the license, certification or registration.
(8) (a) An applicant may request and make an appointment
with the department to review his or her examination.
(b) An applicant who has failed his or her examination may not
review the examination less than 7 calendar days before the applicant
is scheduled to retake the examination.
(c) The department shall retain license, certification or registration
examinations at least 2 months after the date of the
examination.
206. An application and fee for a license, certification or registration that requires an examination shall be received by the department at least __ calendar days prior to the day of the examination.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 60
207. An applicant who fails to appear at a scheduled license, certification or registration examination without giving notice to the department at least ____ hours before the examination shall be considered to have failed the examination and shall be required to submit a re-examination application and examination fee.
a. 12
b. 48
c. 24
d. 21
208. The department shall inform an applicant of the results of an examination in writing within ____ calendar days from the examination date.
a. 7
b. 48
c. 24
d. 21
209. An applicant who has failed his or her examination may not review the examination less than ___ calendar days before the applicant is scheduled to retake the examination.
a. 7
b. 48
c. 24
d. 21
210. The department shall retain license, certification or registration examinations at least ___ months after the date of the examination.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.10 Denial, suspension and revocation.
(1) Except as provided in sub. (2) pertaining to licenses or registrations
for master plumbers, journeyman plumbers, cross connection
control testers and utility contractors, the department may
deny, suspend or revoke a license, certification or registration
under this chapter in accordance with this subsection.
(a) Reasons. The department may deny, suspend or revoke a
license, certification or registration under this chapter if the
department determines that an applicant or holder of the license,
certification or registration is responsible for any of the following:
1. Fails to meet the qualifications for the license, certification
or registration.
2. Has obtained the license, certification or registration
through fraud or deceit.
3. Has demonstrated negligence or incompetence in fulfilling
the responsibilities or obligations of the license, certification or
registration.
4. Has a conflict of interest in fulfilling the responsibilities or
obligations under the license, certification or registration.
5. Has demonstrated misconduct in fulfilling the responsibilities
or obligations under the license, certification or registration.
6. Has been arrested or convicted for a crime substantially
related to the license, certification or registration.
7. Has a physical or mental impairment which prevents the
applicant or holder from fulfilling the responsibilities or obligations
under the license, certification or registration.
8. Has violated state, federal or local laws or regulations relating
to the conduct of the activities under the license, certification
or registration.
9. Has been certified by the department of revenue under s.
73.0301, Stats., to be liable for taxes.
10. Has been delinquent in making court−ordered payments
relating to the support of a child or former spouse pursuant to s.
101.02 (21) (a), (c) and (d), Stats.
11. Has failed to comply with a subpoena or warrant issued
by the department of workforce development or a county child
support agency relating to paternity or child support proceedings
pursuant to s. 101.02 (21) (a), (c) and (d), Stats.
12. If registered or certified under ss. Comm 5.80 to 5.81, has
performed any of the following:
a. Intentionally shifted costs, for the purpose of making ineligible
costs appear to be eligible.
b. Intentionally billed for activities not undertaken at a specific
cleanup site.
c. Rebated the deductible or structured a claim to provide a
responsible party with a rebate or reimbursement of the deductible.
d. Intentionally submitted invoices or bills containing fraud,
or submitted claims that were incomplete or contained fraud.
e. Conducted unnecessary, ineffective or incomplete remedial
activities or services.
f. Attempted to defraud, including but not limited to false or
double billing of clients for work conducted.
g. Charged a fee that the department determined was excessive,
after written notice from the department that the fee was
excessive and should not have been charged.
h. Failed to maintain required records.
i. Denied the department access to requested records.
j. Failed to submit a required notice or report to the department,
within a required time period.
k. Exhibited a pattern of attempting and failing to complete
remediations of PECFA sites.
(b) Notice of denial, suspension or revocation. Except as provided
under s. 101.654 (4), Stats., relative to a dwelling contractor
financial responsibility certification, and par. (c), a notice of
denial, suspension or revocation shall be sent to the applicant or
the license, certification or registration holder. The notice shall
include all of the following:
1. The basis for the denial, suspension or revocation, including
the facts relied on by the department to make its decision and
a citation of applicable statutes and administrative rules establishing
the legal basis for the decision; and
2. A statement that the applicant or the license, certification
or registration holder may file a request for an administrative hearing.
Note: See the appendix under A5.31 for a reprint of s. 101.654 (4), Stats.
(c) Summary suspension. Under s. 227.51 (3), Stats., the
department may summarily suspend any license, certification or
registration if the department finds that immediate action is necessary
for public health, safety or welfare. The summary suspension
of a license, certification or registration shall remain in effect until
after a final decision is issued following a hearing.
(d) Hearing. 1. The request for an administrative hearing shall
be received by the office of legal counsel of the department no
later than 30 days following the date of mailing of the notice under
par. (b), otherwise, the request for hearing shall be denied by the
department.
Facsimile requests received after 4:30 p.m. are considered filed on the next business
day.
2. Hearings shall comply with the provisions of ch. 227, Stats.
(e) Surrender of license, certification or registration. A person
whose license, certification or registration has been suspended or
revoked shall surrender the license, certification or registration to
the department upon request.
(f) Reinstatement. 1. Suspension. a. A person whose license,
certification or registration has been suspended may apply to have
the license, certification or registration reissued only after the time
set for suspension by the department or hearing examiner has
passed and by complying with the conditions set forth in the suspension
order.
b. The request to the department to have a suspended license,
certification or registration reissued shall be made in writing.
c. The department may require a person whose license, certification
or registration has been suspended to apply for the
license, certification or registration by complying with all of the
requirements for a new applicant, including paying the application
fees and successfully passing an examination.
d. The department may impose conditions on the reissued
license, certification or registration to assure compliance with this
chapter.
2. Revocation. A person whose license, certification or registration
has been revoked may not apply to ever receive such a
license, certification or registration.
(2) Pursuant to s. 145.10, Stats., the department may suspend
or revoke the license or registration of any master plumber, journeyman
plumber, master plumber−restricted, journeyman plumber−
restricted, utility contractor, or cross connection control tester
in accordance with this subsection.
(a) General. The department may suspend or revoke a license
or registration for any of the following reasons:
1. The practice of fraud or deceit in obtaining a license or registration.
2. Negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the practice or
work allowed by the license or registration.
3. Failure to correct an installation for which the license or
registration holder is responsible within the time prescribed by the
department.
Note: Section 145.10 (1) (b), Stats., indicates that the correction of an installation
must take place within 30 days following notification by the department of a violation.
4. Falsified information on an inspection form under s. 145.20
(5), Stats.
(b) Investigations. The department may conduct an investigation
of any alleged violations of this chapter or chs. Comm 82 and
83. If it is determined that no further action is warranted, the
department shall notify the persons affected. If the department
determines that there is probable cause, it shall order a hearing and
notify the persons affected.
(c) Summary suspension. Under s. 227.51 (3), Stats., the
department may summarily suspend any license or registration if
the department finds that immediate action is necessary for public
health, safety or welfare. The summary suspension of a license or
registration shall remain in effect until after a final decision is
issued following a hearing.
(d) Hearings. The hearing for the suspension or revocation of
a license or registration shall be conducted as a contested case
hearing in accordance with ch. 227, Stats., and s. 145.10, Stats.
(e) Findings. The department may make findings and enter its
order on the basis of the facts revealed by its investigation. Any
findings as a result of petition or hearing shall be in writing and
shall be binding unless appealed to the secretary.
1. Suspension. The period for suspension shall be determined
by the hearing examiner or the department. The period for suspension
may not exceed one year. A person whose license or registration
has been suspended may apply to have the license or registration
reinstated by filing a new application and payment of the
appropriate fee specified in s. Comm 5.02.
2. Revocation. The period for revocation shall be determined
by the hearing examiner or the department. The period for revocation
shall not exceed one year. A person whose license or registration
has been revoked shall be eligible for the license or registration
only after the time set for revocation by department order has
passed. A person whose license or registration has been revoked
may apply to have the license or registration reinstated only after
submitting a completed application for license or registration
examination, if required, payment of the examination fee, passing
of the examination and payment of the license or registration fee
specified in s. Comm 5.02.
211. Pertaining to licenses or registrations for master plumbers, journeyman plumbers, cross connection control testers and utility contractors, the department may deny, suspend or revoke a license, certification or registration under this chapter in accordance with this subsection.
a. true
b. false
212. The department may deny, suspend or revoke a license, certification or registration under this chapter if the department determines that an applicant or holder of the license, certification or registration is responsible for any of the following:
a. Fails to meet the qualifications for the license, certification or registration.
b. Has obtained the license, certification or registration through fraud or deceit.
c. Has demonstrated negligence or incompetence in fulfilling the responsibilities or obligations of the license, certification or registration.
d. all of the above
213. The department may deny, suspend or revoke a license, certification or registration under this chapter if the department determines that an applicant or holder of the license, certification or registration is responsible for any of the following:
a. Has violated state, federal or local laws or regulations relating to the conduct of the activities under the license, certification or registration.
b. Has been certified by the department of revenue under s. 73.0301, Stats., to be liable for taxes.
c. Has been delinquent in making court−ordered payments relating to the support of a child or former spouse pursuant to s.101.02 (21) (a), (c) and (d), Stats.
d. all of the above
214. A person whose license, certification or registration has been suspended or revoked may or should surrender the license, certification or registration to the department upon request.
a. true
b. false
215. A person whose license, certification or registration has been revoked may apply again to receive such a license, certification or registration after 5 years.
a. true
b. false
216. The period for suspension shall be determined by the hearing examiner or the department. The period for suspension may not exceed _____ year. A person whose license or registration has been suspended may apply to have the license or registration reinstated by filing a new application and payment of the appropriate fee specified in s. Comm 5.02.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
217. The period for revocation shall be determined by the hearing examiner or the department. The period for revocation shall not exceed ____ year.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
218. The department may suspend or revoke a license or registration for any of the following reasons:
a. The practice of fraud or deceit in obtaining a license or registration.
b. Negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the practice or work allowed by the license or registration.
c. Failure to correct an installation for which the license or registration holder is responsible within the time prescribed by the department.
d. all of the above.
219. The department may make findings and enter its order on the basis of the facts revealed by its investigation. Any findings as a result of petition or hearing shall be by phone and shall be binding unless appealed to the secretary.
a. true
b. false
220. The department shall conduct an investigation of any alleged violations of this chapter or chs. Comm 82 and 83. If it is determined that no further action is warranted, the department shall call by phone to notify the persons affected. If the department determines that there is probable cause, it mayl order a hearing and notify the persons affected.
a. true
b. false
221. A person whose license or registration has been revoked
must apply to have the license or registration reinstated only after passing a
new examination, if required, payment of the examination fee, passing of the
examination and payment of the license or registration fee according to Comm
5.02.
a. true
b. false
222. The department may require a person whose license, certification or registration has been suspended to apply for the license, certification or registration by complying with all of the requirements for a new applicant, including paying the application fees and successfully passing an examination.
a. true
b. false
223. The department may make findings and enter its order on the basis of the facts revealed by its investigation. Any findings as a result of petition or hearing shall be in writing and may be binding unless appealed to the Governor.
a. true
b. false
224. The hearing for the suspension or revocation of a license or registration shall be conducted as a contested case hearing in accordance with ch. 227, Stats., and s. 145.10, Stats.
a. true
b. false
225. The department shall summarily suspend any license or registration if the department finds that immediate action is necessary for public health, traffic, nuisance laws, safety or welfare, child support, or tax laws.
a. true
b. false
226. The summary suspension of a license or registration shall remain in effect until after a final decision by the Governor is issued following a hearing.
a. true
b. false
227. Facsimile requests received after 4:30 p.m. are considered filed on the next business day.
a. true
b. false
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm
5.31 Dwelling contractor financial responsibility.
(1) GENERAL. Pursuant to s. 101.654 (1) (a), Stats., no person
may obtain a building permit for a one− or 2−family dwelling
unless the person holds a certification issued by the department as
a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or a
dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification,
except as provided under s. 101.654 (1) (b), Stats.
Note: Section 101.654 (1) (b), Stats., exempts an owner of a dwelling who resides
or will reside in the dwelling and who applies for a building permit to perform work
on the dwelling from obtaining a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification.
Note: A dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification will
be issued to an individual who applies using a bond of less than $25,000. The
card issued by the department for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−
restricted certification will read “Financial Responsibility−by a bond under
$25,000 Certification”.
(2) APPLICATION FOR CERTIFICATION. A person applying for a
dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or a
dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification
shall submit all of the following:
(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.
(b) An application fee and a certification fee in accordance
with s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.
(3) QUALIFICATIONS FOR CERTIFICATION. (a) A person applying
for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or
a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification
shall provide evidence that the person complies with the
worker’s compensation requirements, unemployment compensation
requirements and liability or bond insurance requirements as
specified under s. 101.654 (2) and (2m), Stats.
Note: See the appendix for a reprint of the requirements under s. 101.654 (2) and
(2m), Stats.
(b) The person applying for a dwelling contractor financial
responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor financial
responsibility−restricted certification shall be the owner of the
contracting business, a partner in the contracting business applying
on behalf of a partnership, or the chairman of the board or chief
executive officer applying on behalf of the contracting corporation.
(4) RESPONSIBILITIES. (a) A person who holds a dwelling contractor
financial responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor
financial responsibility−restricted certification shall comply
with the responsibilities under s. 101.654 (4), Stats.
Note: See the appendix for a reprint of the requirements under s. 101.654 (4), Stats.
(b) For any construction project that requires a uniform building
permit under s. Comm 20.08, a person who holds a dwelling
contractor financial responsibility certification or dwelling contractor
financial responsibility−restricted certification may not
commence construction until a permit is issued for the construction.
(c) For any construction project that involves installation or
modification of a private onsite wastewater treatment system, a
person who holds a dwelling contractor financial responsibility
certification or dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted
certification may not commence construction until a sanitary
permit is issued for the construction in accordance with s.
Comm 83.21.
(5) RENEWAL. (a) Pursuant to s. 101.654 (3), Stats., a dwelling
contractor financial responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor
financial responsibility−restricted certification shall be
valid for no longer than one year after the date of issuance.
(b) 1. A person may renew his or her dwelling contractor
financial responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor
financial responsibility−restricted certification.
2. A dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification
or a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification
shall
be renewed in accordance with s. Comm 5.07
228. No person may obtain a building
permit for a one− or 2−family dwelling unless the person holds a
certification issued by the department as a ____________________________.
a.
dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification
b. dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification
c. licensed building contractor
d. both a & b
229. Section 101.654 (1) (b), Stats., exempts an owner of a dwelling who resides or might reside in the dwelling and who applies for a building permit to perform work on the dwelling from obtaining a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification.
a. true
b. false
230. A dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification will be issued to an individual who applies using a bond of less than $25,000.
a. true
b. false
231. A person applying for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or
a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification shall provide evidence that the person complies with the _________________________.
a. worker’s compensation requirements
b. unemployment compensation requirements
c. liability or bond insurance requirements
d. all of the above
e. only a & b
232. For any construction project that requires a uniform building permit under s. Comm 20.08, a person who holds a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification may commence construction until a permit is issued for the construction.
a. true
b. false
233. The person applying for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification shall be the _____________.
a. owner of the contracting business
b. a partner in the contracting business applying on behalf of a partnership
c. the chairman of the board or chief executive officer applying on behalf of the contracting corporation.
d. all of the above
e. only a & b
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.315 Dwelling contractor qualifier. (1) GENERAL.
The purpose of the dwelling contractor qualifier certification
is to provide proof of fulfilling the continuing education
obligations to the issuers of building permits as required under s.
101.654 (1) (a), Stats.
(2) APPLICATION. A person applying for a dwelling contractor
qualifier certification shall submit all of the following:
(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.
(b) An application fee and a certification fee in accordance
with s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.
(c) One of the following:
1. Evidence that the person has completed at least 12 hours
in an approved course in dwelling construction within one year
prior to the date of application. The course shall include instruction
in at least the following subject matter and one or more tests
on at least the following subject matter:
a. Construction laws
b. Construction codes.
c. Construction business practices.
2. a. A statement which may be verified by the department
that the person at any time from April 11 to April 14, 2006 was the
applicant for, was a person eligible to apply for, or was the contact
person for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification
or dwelling contractor financial responsibility − restricted
certification.
b. This subdivision does not apply after September 1, 2009.
c. The eligibility provisions under this subd. 2. a. may be used
only once to obtain a dwelling contractor qualifier certification.
Note: Under the administrative rules applicants for the dwelling contractor financial
responsibility certifications are to be the business owners, partners, chairmen of
the boards and chief executive offices. The Safety and Buildings Division has on file
a record of who held a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or a
dwelling contractor financial responsibility – restricted certification any time
between April 11, 2006 and April 14, 2006.
(3) RENEWAL. (a) 1. A person may renew his or her certification
as a dwelling contractor qualifier.
2. A dwelling contractor qualifier certification shall be
renewed in accordance with s. Comm 5.07.
(b) 1. The renewal of a certification as a dwelling contractor
qualifier shall be contingent upon the individual obtaining at least
12 hours of acceptable continuing education within the time
period specified in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06, except as provided
in subd. 2.
2. A person who holds a certification as a dwelling contractor
qualifier may apply to the department for waiver of the continuing
education requirements under subd. 1. on the grounds of prolonged
illness or disability or similar circumstances. Each application for
waiver shall be considered individually on its merits by the department.
234. The purpose of the dwelling contractor qualifier certification is to provide proof of fulfilling the continuing education obligations to the issuers of ________________.
a. zoning permits
b. land use permits
c. a & b
d. a, b, & e
e. building permits
235. A non-grandfathered person applying for a dwelling contractor qualifier certification shall submit evidence that the person has completed at least ___ hours in an approved course in dwelling construction within one year prior to the date of application.
a. 3
b. 12
c. 6
d. none of the above
236. For a person to be grandfathered as a Qualifier, that person needs a statement which may be verified by the department that the person at any time from April 11 to April 14, 2006 was the applicant for, was a person eligible to apply for, or was the contact person for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification.
a. true
b. false
237. The renewal of a certification as a dwelling contractor qualifier shall be contingent upon the individual obtaining at least _____ hours of acceptable continuing education within the 2 year time period as specified in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. none
e. 12
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.323 Manufactured home dealer. (1) GENERAL.
Under s. 101.951 (1), Stats., no person may engage in the
business of selling manufactured homes to a consumer or to the
retail market unless the person holds a license issued by the
department as a licensed manufactured home dealer. A branch
license shall also be obtained for each branch operated by the
licensed manufactured home dealer to sell homes.
(2) APPLICATION FOR LICENSE. A person applying for a
manufactured home dealer license shall submit all of the following:
(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.
(b) An application fee and a license fee in accordance with s.
Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.
(c) A license fee for each branch in accordance with s. Comm
5.02, Table 5.02.
(d) One of the following forms of security:
1. Surety bond. A surety bond shall be filed on form
SBD−10679 and issued by a bonding company licensed by this
state. The surety bond shall be payable for the benefit of any person
sustaining a loss because of an act of the licensee constituting
grounds for the suspension or revocation of a license under s.
101.951 (6), Stats.
2. Financial statement. A financial statement shall be filed on
form SBD−10678 or the equivalent in accordance with generally
accepted accounting principles and be dated not more than 90
days prior to the date of application. A small business, as defined
in s. 227.114 (1), Stats., that does no interim financial reporting
may submit a financial statement from the close of the business’s
most recent fiscal year. Financial statements anticipating some
future event shall not be accepted.
(3) QUALIFICATIONS. (a) Minimum net worth or bond. The
minimum level of net worth or surety bond of an applicant shall
be determined in accordance with Table 5.323−1 for a non−broker
or Table 5.323−2 for a broker. The department shall deny the
license of any applicant who fails to meet the net worth or surety
bond criteria specified in the tables.
(b) Person applying. The person applying for a manufactured
home dealer license shall be the owner of the business, a partner
in the business applying on behalf of a partnership, or the chairperson
of the board or chief executive officer applying on behalf of
the corporation.
(4) Responsibilities. A person who holds a manufactured
home dealer license shall post the license at the main business
office and shall comply with the trade practices, facilities and
records requirements specified in subs. (5) to (9).
(5) ADVERTISING AND SALES REPRESENTATIONS. (a) Truthful.
The use of false, deceptive or misleading advertising or representations
by any licensee to induce the purchase of a manufactured
home is prohibited.
(b) Factual. Any licensee, making a statement of fact to the
public in an advertisement, written statement or representation
concerning the manufactured home offered for sale, the services
provided or any other aspects of business operation, shall, upon
request of the department, furnish evidence of the validity and
accuracy of the statement of fact at the time it was made.
(c) Disclosures required when advertising price. When the
price of a manufactured home is advertised by a licensee, the
advertised price shall include all charges that shall be paid by the
retail purchaser to acquire ownership of the advertised home with
the exception of sales tax, title registration fees, government
required permits, and charges from lenders or other entities.
(d) Name. Advertisements for manufactured home sales shall
include the licensed business name.
(e) New or used. When advertising a manufactured home, a
licensee shall state the model year of the home or whether the
home is a new manufactured home or a used manufactured home.
If the manufactured homes in an advertisement are either all new
or all used, one reference in the advertisement designating that
they are new or used is sufficient.
(f) Expiration terms of sales or promotions. Whenever a sale
or promotion offering gifts, merchandise, equipment, accessories,
service, discounts, price reductions or cash is advertised, the
advertisement shall specifically disclose the expiration terms or
date of the sale or promotion.
(g) Relocations. Whenever a licensee advertises a manufactured
home on a rental lot site that may have to be moved as a condition
of the sale, that fact shall be stated in the advertisement.
Note: See Department of Agricultural, Trade and Consumer Protection rules under
section ATCP 125.02 regarding tie−in sales; separate or discriminatory charges.
(6) PURCHASE CONTRACT. (a) Usage. 1. A licensee shall furnish
retail purchasers with a manufactured home purchase contract
that clearly states that the retail purchaser is making an offer
to purchase a manufactured home. An exact copy of the purchase
contract shall be provided to the retail purchaser at the time the
retail purchaser signs the offer and again after the offer is accepted
by the manufactured home dealer if accepted at a different time
than accepted by the retail purchaser. Any changes in the purchase
contract after signing by the retail purchaser or subsequent to
acceptance by the manufactured home dealer shall be initialed by
all the parties on all copies.
whenever the licensee accepts a down payment, deposit, or title
for a trade−in unit from a prospective retail purchaser.
(b) Contract requirements. A manufactured home purchase
contract shall be completed on form SBD−10807.
(c) Termination of offer to purchase. 1. Unless otherwise specified
in the contract, the offer to purchase is automatically voided
if the licensee fails to accept or reject the offer by the close of the
manufactured home dealer’s next business day.
2. The licensee shall not sell the manufactured home to any
other person until the offer is rejected by the licensee or the offer
is voided in accordance with this subsection, or the retail purchaser
cancels the contract in accordance with par. (d).
3. Any down payment, deposit or title shall be returned to the
prospective retail purchaser within 2 working hours of the time the
offer to purchase is rejected by the licensee. If the prospective
retail purchaser is not present or available during the 2 hour
period, those items shall be returned in person or mailed by the
close of the manufactured home dealer’s next business day.
(d) Cancellation of agreements. 1. The purchase contract shall
clearly state that cancellation of a manufactured home contract
within one business day of acceptance by a manufactured home
dealer may subject the retail purchaser to a penalty of up to 1% of
the cash price of the manufactured home and that cancellation
after the close of the next business day may subject the retail purchaser
to a penalty not to exceed the penalty amount specified in
the contract. Modification of the purchase contract shall not
extend the cancellation period. Documented proof of notification
of cancellation is required regardless of the method of notification.
2. The title and any down payment or deposit which is not
retained by the manufactured home dealer as a penalty in accordance
with subd. 1. shall be returned to the retail purchaser by the
close of the manufactured home dealer’s next business day following
receipt of the retail purchaser’s notice of cancellation.
3. Whenever a manufactured home is sold away from the
licensed place of business, the manufactured home dealer shall
furnish the customer with a written notice of the 3−day consumer
cancellation rights in accordance with s. 423.202, Stats.
(e) Price changes. Any increase in price to a retail purchaser
after the manufactured home dealer has accepted an offer is prohibited
except when the price increase is due to any of the items
in subds. 1. to 3.
1. The addition of new equipment required by local, state or
federal law.
2. Local, state or federal tax changes.
3. The reappraisal of a trade−in unit that has suffered damage
or is missing furnishings, appliances or accessories that were part
of the trade−in unit at the time the purchase contract was executed.
Reappraisal by the licensee shall be limited to an amount equal to
the retail repair costs of the damage incurred, or to the value of furnishings,
appliances or accessories removed.
4. The purchase contract shall include information regarding
possible price increases due to any of the items in subds. 1. to 3.
(f) Warranties. Warranties and disclosures shall be provided
in accordance with s. 101.953, Stats.
Note: See appendix for a reprint of section 101.953, Stats.
(g) Name of prior owner. The purchase contract shall include
the name and address of the current titled owner if the manufactured
home is consigned to or listed by the licensee. The name and
address of the previous owner shall be kept on file at the manufactured
home dealer’s main business office if the manufactured
home is owned and offered for sale by the licensee.
(h) On−site sales. If the manufactured home is displayed for
sale on a rental lot site or if a licensee represents that a manufactured
home may occupy a site in a specified manufactured home
community, the manufactured home dealer shall:
1. Clearly state on the purchase contract whether or not the
manufactured home may have to be moved from the site.
2. Clearly state on the purchase contract that the contract is
voidable by the retail purchaser if the retail purchaser is rejected
by, or the purchaser’s manufactured home is not permitted in, the
manufactured home community.
3. If the manufactured home may remain on site, inform the
prospective retail purchaser in writing prior to the execution of the
contract that a copy of the current manufactured home community
lease and rules may be obtained from the current manufactured
home owner or manufactured home community operator.
(i) Service fees. A licensee shall not assess a retail purchaser
an additional service charge or fee for completing any sales−related
home inspection forms that are required by law or rule.
(j) Waiver. The use of a manufactured home purchase contract
that requires the retail purchaser to waive any claims the retail purchaser
may have for breach of contract by the licensee is prohibited.
(7) CONSIGNMENT AND LISTING AGREEMENTS. (a) Usage
and
contents. 1. Form SBD−10808 shall be used whenever a
manufactured home dealer lists or offers to sell a used manufactured
home on consignment.
2. Form SBD−10807 shall be used whenever a manufactured
home dealer sells a listed or consigned used manufactured home.
(b) On−site sales on rental sites. Manufactured homes selling
agreements for units offered for sale on−site on rental sites shall
comply with sub. (6) (h).
(c) Net sales prohibited. Licensees shall not obtain, negotiate,
or attempt to negotiate any manufactured home selling agreement
providing for a stipulated net price to the owner with the excess
over the stipulated net price to be received by the licensee as commission.
(8) DISCLOSURE OF THE CONDITIONS OF THE MANUFACTURED
HOME. (a) Model year designation. Changing the model year of
a manufactured home is prohibited. If no model year is designated,
the year of manufacture applies.
(b) New manufactured home disclosure. The licensee shall, on
the face of the new manufactured home purchase contract, disclose
all manufactured home dealer installed options or accessories
and whether or not the options or accessories are warranted.
(c) Used manufactured home general condition disclosure. 1.
Before the execution of a purchase contract for a used manufactured
home owned by a licensee, the licensee shall inform a prospective
retail purchaser of all significant structural or mechanical
defects or damage on form SBD−10809. If the licensee is unable
to determine whether specific damage or defects exist, that fact
shall be noted on the disclosure form. Disclosure of information
shall include that which the licensee discovers as a result of a reasonably
competent and diligent inspection which shall consist of,
but is not limited to, a walk−around and interior inspection, an
under−home inspection, roof inspection and inspection of the
appliances. A reasonably competent and diligent inspection is not
required to cover every possible technical detail. The licensee is
not required to dismantle any part of the manufactured home during
the inspection process.
2. The seller of a listed or consigned used manufactured home
shall provide a completed form SBD−10809 to the licensee. The
licensee shall provide the completed disclosure statement to the
prospective retail purchaser.
3. Unless otherwise agreed to in the purchase contract, the
inspection disclosures shall not create any warranties, expressed
or implied, or affect warranty coverage provided for in the purchase
contract.
(9) FACILITIES AND RECORDS. (a) Business facilities.
Manufactured home dealers shall provide and maintain business
facilities that comply with all of the following:
1. A main business office that maintains books, records and
files necessary to conduct business. The required business office
may be established within a residence if the office is accessible to
an outside entrance and is used primarily for conducting the
manufactured home business.
2. A display lot within the same block or directly across the
street from the main business office, if a display lot is provided.
3. A repair shop, or a service agreement with a nearby repair
shop, where there are repair tools, repair equipment and personnel
to perform the services provided for in a warranty applicable to a
manufactured home sold by the manufactured home dealer. Any
service agreement shall be on form SBD−10685.
(b) Relocation. A main business office may not be relocated
without notice to the department.
(c) Sign. Manufactured home dealers who carry and display
inventory shall provide an exterior business sign in compliance
with s. 100.18 (5), Stats.
(d) Temporary sales locations. 1. Manufactured home dealers
shall be permitted to display and sell manufactured homes at a
temporary site other than the licensed place of business.
2. A temporary sales location may not be used for longer than
30 days.
3. A consigned, listed or model manufactured home shall not
be considered a temporary sales location.
Note: There may be zoning, building code and permit requirements relating to
business locations that are enforced by local municipalities.
(e) Records kept. The books, records and files required to be
kept and maintained at the main business office by a manufactured
home dealer shall include all of the following:
1. A written verification that the manufactured home dealer
has in place a dealership arrangement or an established relationship
with a manufacturer to sell and advertise the manufacturer’s
new manufactured homes.
2. The title or other evidence of ownership for each used
manufactured home owned and offered for sale and the manufacturer’s
statement of origin information for each new manufactured
home owned and offered for sale. The manufactured home dealer
shall also have a factory invoice, a completed manufactured home
dealer reassignment form or a purchase contract evidencing
trade−in or purchase when a manufacturer or lending institution
is holding the title or manufacturer’s statement of origin of the
manufactured home.
3. A written selling agreement between the owner and the
manufactured home dealer for each manufactured home owned
by an individual and offered for sale or listed by the manufactured
home dealer.
4. The original or a copy of all manufactured home purchase
contracts, purchase orders and invoices. The records shall also
include a copy of form SBD−10687 as additional evidence of the
sale as well as information regarding collection of sales tax and
5. A record of every manufactured home bought, sold,
exchanged, consigned, or listed that includes the following information:
date acquired, acquired from name and address, new or
used, year, model and identification number, date sold or disposed
of, disposed of or sold to name and address.
(f) Maintenance of records. The records under par. (e) shall
be maintained for 5 years. The records shall be open to inspection
and copying by the department during reasonable business hours.
(10) RENEWAL. (a) 1. A person may renew his or her
manufactured home dealer license.
2. A manufactured home dealer license shall be renewed in
accordance with s. Comm 5.07.
(b) The renewal of a license as a manufactured home dealer
shall be contingent upon the applicant providing the information
required under sub. (2) (d).
238. No person may engage in the business of selling manufactured homes to a consumer or to the retail market unless the person holds a license issued by the department as a licensed ________________.
a. dwelling contractor
b. dwelling contractor qualifier
c. manufactured home dealer
d. all of the above
239. A branch license shall also be obtained for each branch operated by the licensed manufactured home dealer to sell homes.
a. true
b. false
240. Financial statement. A financial statement shall be filed on form SBD−10678 or the equivalent in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and be dated not more than ______ days prior to the date of application.
a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. none of the above
241. The person applying for a manufactured home dealer license shall be the a or.
a. owner of the business
b. partner in the business applying on behalf of a partnership
c. the chairperson of the board or chief executive officer applying on behalf of the corporation
d. all of the above
e. only a & b
242. The use of false, deceptive or misleading advertising or representations by any licensee to induce the purchase of a manufactured home is acceptable.
a. true
b. false
243. A person who holds a manufactured home dealer license shall post the license at the main business office and at any other locations.
a. true
b. false
244. When advertising a manufactured home, a licensee shall state the model year of the home or whether the home is a new manufactured home or a used manufactured home.
a. true
b. false
245. Whenever a sale or promotion offering gifts, merchandise, equipment, accessories, service, discounts, price reductions or cash is advertised, the advertisement shall specifically disclose the
a. expiration terms
b. date of the sale
c. date of promotion.
d. all of the above
246. Unless otherwise specified in the contract, the offer to purchase is automatically voided if the licensee fails to accept or reject the offer by the close of the manufactured home dealer’s ______________.
a. within 3 days
b. next business day
c. 48 hour
d. 2nd business day
247. The purchase contract shall clearly state that cancellation of a manufactured home contract within one business day of acceptance by a manufactured home dealer may subject the retail purchaser to a penalty of up to ___% of the cash price of the manufactured home.
a. 1
b. 5
c. 2
d. 10
248. Any increase in price to a retail purchaser after the manufactured home dealer has accepted an offer is prohibited except when the price increase is due to any of the items in subds. 1. to 3.
a. The addition of new equipment required by local, state or federal law.
b. Local, state or federal tax changes.
c. The reappraisal of a trade-in unit that has suffered damage or is missing furnishings, appliances or accessories that were part of the trade-in unit at the time the purchase contract was executed.
d. all of the above
e. only a & b
249. The purchase contract shall include the name and address of the current titled owner if the manufactured home is _________ the licensee.
a. consigned to
b. listed by
c. processed by
d. only a or b
250. A licensee may assess a retail purchaser an additional service charge or fee for completing any sales related home inspection forms that are required by law or rule.
a. true
b. false
251. Unless otherwise agreed to in the purchase contract, the inspection disclosures shall create any warranties, expressed or implied, or affect warranty coverage provided for in the purchase contract.
a. true
b. false
252. Manufactured home dealers shall be permitted to display and sell manufactured homes at a temporary site other than the licensed place of business for not be used for longer than ___days.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 60
d. 90
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Comm 5.325 Manufactured home salesperson.
(1) GENERAL. (a) Under s. 101.952 (1), Stats., no person may
engage in the business of selling manufactured homes to a consumer
or to the retail market unless the person holds a license
issued by the department as a licensed manufactured home salesperson.
A manufactured home dealer who acts as a manufactured
home salesperson shall secure a manufactured home salesperson
license in addition to the manufactured home dealer license.
(b) A manufactured home salesperson shall obtain a manufactured
home salesperson license for each manufactured home
dealer employing the manufactured home salesperson.
(2) APPLICATION FOR LICENSE. A person applying for a
manufactured home salesperson license shall submit all of the following:
(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.
(b) An application fee and a license fee in accordance with s.
Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.
(3) QUALIFICATIONS FOR LICENSE. A person applying for a
manufactured home salesperson license shall hold a manufactured
home dealer license issued by the department or shall be
employed by a person who holds a manufactured home dealer
license issued by the department.
(4) RESPONSIBILITIES. (a) A person who holds a manufactured
home salesperson license shall comply with the responsibilities
under ss. 101.952 (3), and 101.953, Stats.
Note: Section 101.952 (3), Stats., indicates that every licensee shall carry his or
her license when engaged in his or her business and display the same upon request.
The license shall name his or her employer, and, in case of a change of employer, the
manufactured home salesperson shall immediately mail his or her license to the
department, which shall endorse that change on the license without charge.
Note: See appendix for a reprint of section 101.953, Stats.
(b) A person who holds a manufactured home salesperson
license shall comply with the provisions under s. Comm 5.323 that
apply to a licensee.
(5) INVALID LICENSE. (a) A manufactured home salesperson
license shall remain valid until one of the following conditions
occur:
1. The manufactured home dealer license held by the
manufactured home salesperson’s current employer expires.
2. The manufactured home salesperson ceases employment
with a licensed manufactured home dealer.
3. The manufactured home salesperson’s employer goes out
of business.
4. The department suspends or revokes the manufactured
home salesperson’s license.
(b) A person whose manufactured home salesperson license
is invalidated by ceasing employment with a licensed manufactured
home dealer may request the department to transfer their
manufactured home salesperson license to a new employer without
charge, as long as the department receives the application
before the new employer’s manufactured home dealer license
expires.
(6) RENEWAL. (a) A person may renew his or her manufactured
home salesperson license.
(b) A manufactured home salesperson license shall be
renewed in accordance with s. Comm 5.07.
253. A manufactured home dealer who acts as a manufactured home salesperson shall secure a manufactured home salesperson license in addition to the manufactured home dealer license.
a. true
b. false
254. A person applying for a manufactured home salesperson license shall a or shall be __________________________.
a. hold manufactured home dealer license issued by the department
b. employed by a person who holds a manufactured home dealer license issued by the department.
c. both a & b
d. neither a or b
255. A manufactured home salesperson license shall remain valid until one of the following conditions occur:
a. The manufactured home dealer license held by the manufactured home salesperson’s current employer expires.
b. The manufactured home salesperson ceases employment with a licensed manufactured home dealer.
c. both a & b
d. neither a or b
256. A manufactured home salesperson license shall remain valid until one of the following conditions occur:
a. The manufactured home salesperson’s employer remains in business.
b. The department suspends or revokes the manufactured home salesperson’s license.
c. both a & b
d. neither a or b
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Comm 5.327 Manufactured home installer. (1) GENERAL.
(a) Except as provided in par. (b), beginning on January 1,
2007, pursuant to s. 101.96, Stats., no person may install a
manufactured home onto a foundation or other support system
unless the person complies with one of the following conditions:
1. The person holds a license issued by the department as a
licensed manufactured home installer.
2. The person is under the general supervision of another person
who holds a license issued by the department as a licensed
manufactured home installer.
(b) 1. The owner of a manufactured home who will reside in
the home may install his or her own manufactured home without
holding a license as a licensed manufactured home installer. This
exemption does not apply to the owner who contracts for or otherwise
arranges for the installation.
2. A person is not required to hold a license as a licensed
manufactured home installer for electrical, plumbing or HVAC
work associated with the installation of a manufactured home.
Note: There may be other state or local licensing requirements involved in the
installation of manufactured homes.
(2) QUALIFICATIONS FOR LICENSE. A person applying for a
manufactured home installer license shall comply with all of the
following conditions:
(a) The person is at least 18 years old.
(b) The person has not been found responsible in any judicial
or administrative forum for any violation of s. 101.96, Stats., during
the 2 years before the date on which the person’s license
application is submitted.
Note: See appendix for a reprint of section 101.96, Stats.
(c) The person has not been found responsible in any judicial
or administrative forum during the 2 years before the date on
which the person’s license application is submitted for any failure
to perform an installation of a manufactured home as required
under contract or for defrauding any person with regard to the provision
of installation services.
(3) APPLICATION FOR LICENSE. (a) A person may apply for a
license as a licensed manufactured home installer by submitting
an application, an application fee and the license fee in accordance
with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02 and one of the following:
1. Evidence that the person holds a manufactured home
installer license issued by the federal department of housing and
urban development.
2. Evidence that the person holds a manufactured home
installer license issued by a state administrative agency (SAA)
that has an installer licensing program that is equivalent to the
rules under this section.
3. Evidence that the person has completed at least 12 hours
in an approved course or courses in the installation of manufactured
homes within one year prior to the date of application. The
course or courses shall include instruction in at least the following
subject matter and one or more tests on the subject matter:
a. Soil mechanics.
b. Site preparation.
c. Structural support, stabilization and anchorage.
d. Setting.
e. Ventilation of crawl spaces.
f. Connections, plumbing, electrical, HVAC.
g. Joining of home sections.
(b) 1. A person may apply for a license as a licensed manufactured
home installer by submitting an application, an application
fee and the license fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02
and evidence that the person has actively participated in the installation
of at least 10 manufactured homes.
2. This paragraph does not apply after June 1, 2007.
(4) RESPONSIBILITIES. A person who installs or supervises the
installation of manufactured homes as a licensed manufactured
home installer shall be responsible for compliance with the installation
requirements in chs. Comm 21 and 27.
(5) RENEWAL. (a) 1. A person may renew his or her license
as a manufactured home installer.
2. A manufactured home installer license shall be renewed in
accordance with s. Comm 5.07.
(b) 1. The renewal of a license as a manufactured home
installer shall be contingent upon the manufactured home installer
obtaining at least 12 hours of acceptable continuing education
within the time period specified in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06,
except as provided in subd. 2.
2. A person who holds a license as a manufactured home
installer may apply to the department for waiver of the continuing
education requirements under subd. 1. on the grounds of prolonged
illness or disability or similar circumstances. Each
application for waiver shall be considered individually on its merits
by the department.
(c) The renewal of a license as a manufactured home installer
shall be contingent upon all of the following conditions:
1. The person has not been found responsible in any judicial
or administrative forum for any violation of s. 101.96, Stats., during
the previous 2 years.
2. The person has not been found responsible in any judicial
or administrative forum during the previous 2 years for any failure
to perform an installation of a manufactured home as required
under contract or for defrauding any person with regard to the provision
of installation services.
257. Beginning on January 1, 2007, pursuant to s. 101.96, Stats., no person may install a manufactured home onto a foundation or other support system unless the person complies with one of the following conditions:
a. The person holds a license issued by the department as a licensed manufactured home installer.
b. The person is under the general supervision of another person who holds a license issued by the department as a licensed manufactured home installer.
c. The person holds a license issued by the department as a licensed UDC Building Contractor.
d. all of the above
e. only a & b
258. The owner of a manufactured home who will reside in the home may install his or her own manufactured home without holding a license as a licensed manufactured home installer.
a. true
b. false
259. This exemption contained in question 141 does apply to the owner who contracts for or otherwise arranges for the installation.
a. true
b. false
260. A person applying for a manufactured home installer license shall be at least ___ years old.
a. 16
b. 18
c. 21
d. none of the above
261. A person who installs or supervises the installation of manufactured homes as a licensed manufactured home installer shall be responsible for compliance with the installation requirements in chs. Comm 21 and 27.
a. 21 & 26
b. 21-27
c. 21 & 27
d. 20-26
262. The renewal of a license as a manufactured home installer shall be contingent upon the manufactured home installer obtaining at least ____ hours of acceptable continuing education within the time period specified in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06, except as provided in subd. 2.
a. 6
b.18
c. 12
d. 24
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.63 Dwelling inspectors. (1) GENERAL. (a)
Pursuant to ss. 101.66 (2) and 101.96 (1), Stats., no person may
conduct the inspection of one− and 2−family dwellings for the
purpose of administering and enforcing chs. Comm 20 to 25,
unless the person holds one or more of the following certifications
issued by the department:
1. Certified UDC−construction inspector.
2. Certified UDC−electrical inspector.
3. Certified UDC−HVAC inspector.
4. Certified UDC−plumbing inspector.
5. Certified soil erosion inspector.
6. Certified commercial electrical inspector.
7. Certified commercial plumbing inspector.
Note: Pursuant to s. 101.14 (1) (bm), Stats., deputies of the department may perform
inspections for smoke detector installation and maintenance without holding a
certification issued by the department.
(b) A person who holds a certification as a:
1. Certified UDC−construction inspector may inspect one−
and 2−family dwellings for the purpose of administering and
enforcing chs. Comm 20 to 22.
2. Certified UDC−electrical inspector or certified commercial
electrical inspector may inspect one− and 2−family dwellings
for the purpose of administering and enforcing chs. Comm 16 and
24.
3. Certified UDC−HVAC inspector may inspect one− and
2−family dwellings for the purpose of administering and enforcing
ch. Comm 23.
4. Certified UDC−plumbing inspector or certified commercial
plumbing inspector may inspect one− and 2−family dwellings
for the purpose of administering and enforcing chs. Comm 25, 82
and 84.
5. Certified soil erosion inspector may inspect one− and
2−family dwellings for the purpose of administering and enforcing
s. Comm 21.125, and public buildings and places of employment
for the purpose of administering and enforcing ch. Comm
60.
(2) APPLICATION FOR EXAMINATION. A person applying to take
a UDC−construction inspector certification examination, UDC−
electrical inspector certification examination, UDC−HVAC
inspector certification examination, or UDC−plumbing inspector
certification examination shall submit all of the following:
(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.
(b) An application fee and examination fee in accordance with
s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.
(3) EXAMINATION. Except as provided in sub. (4) (a) 2., (b) 2.
and (c) 2., a person seeking to obtain a UDC−construction inspector
certification, UDC−electrical inspector certification, UDC−
HVAC inspector certification, or UDC−plumbing inspector certification
shall take and pass an examination in accordance with s.
Comm 5.09.
(4)
APPLICATION FOR CERTIFICATIONS. (a) UDC−construction.
1. Upon notification of the successful passage of the examination
for a UDC−construction inspector certification, a person may
obtain the certification by submitting an application and the certification
fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.09 (7) (c).
2. A person may apply for certification as a certified UDC−
construction inspector by submitting all of the following:
a. An application, an application fee and the certification fee
in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02.
b. Evidence that the person holds a certification as a commercial
building inspector issued under s. Comm 5.61.
(b) UDC−electrical. 1. Upon notification of the successful
passage of the examination for a UDC−electrical inspector certification,
a person may obtain the certification by submitting an
application and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm
5.01 and 5.09 (7) (c).
2. A person may apply for certification as a certified UDC−
electrical inspector by submitting an application, an application
fee and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and
5.02 and one of the following:
a. Evidence that the person holds a certification as a journeyman
electrician issued under s. Comm 5.44.
b. Evidence that the person holds a certification issued under
the International Association of Electrical Inspectors/National
Fire Protection Association certification program as a certified
electrical inspector−residential.
(c) UDC−HVAC. 1. Upon notification of the successful passage
of the examination for a UDC−HVAC inspector certification,
a person may obtain the certification by submitting an application
and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and
5.09 (7) (c).
2. A person may apply for certification as a certified UDC−
HVAC inspector by submitting an application, an application fee
and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and
5.02 and one of the following:
a. Evidence that the person holds a certification as an HVAC
qualifier issued under s. Comm 5.71.
b. Evidence that the person holds a certification as a commercial
building inspector issued under s. Comm 5.61.
(d) UDC−plumbing. Upon notification of the successful passage
of the examination for a UDC−plumbing inspector certification,
a person may obtain the certification by submitting an
application and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm
5.01 and 5.09 (7) (c).
(e) Soil erosion. A person may apply for certification as a certified
soil erosion inspector by submitting all of the following:
1. An application, an application fee and the certification fee
in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02.
2. Evidence that the person has completed an approved training
course on soil erosion control standards.
(5) RESPONSIBILITIES. A person who inspects one− and 2−family
dwellings as a certified UDC−construction inspector, certified
UDC−electrical inspector, certified UDC−HVAC inspector, certified
UDC−plumbing inspector, or certified soil erosion inspector
shall:
(a) Maintain a record of the inspections made including the
dates and the findings of the inspections;
(b) Provide a copy of the inspection report to the property
owner or his or her agent, and
(c) Make available to the department upon request his or her
inspection records.
(5m) LIMITATIONS. A person who inspects the installation of
manufactured homes as a certified UDC−construction inspector
may not perform the inspection of a particular manufactured home
if the person is, is employed by, or is an independent contractor of
any of the following:
(a) A manufactured home manufacturer who was directly
involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.
(b) A manufactured home salesperson who was directly
involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.
(c) An installer who was directly involved in the sale of the particular
manufactured home.
(6) RENEWAL. (a) 1. A person may renew his or her certification
as a UDC−construction inspector, UDC−electrical inspector,
UDC−HVAC inspector, UDC−plumbing inspector or soil erosion
inspector.
2. An inspector certification under this section shall be
renewed in accordance with s. Comm 5.07.
(b) 1. a. The renewal of a certification as a certified UDC−
construction inspector, certified UDC−electrical inspector, certified
UDC−HVAC inspector, or certified UDC−plumbing inspector
which has an expiration date on or before June 30, 2006 shall
be contingent upon the inspector obtaining at least 12 hours of
acceptable continuing education within the time period specified
in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06, except as provided in subd. 2.
b. The renewal of a certification as a certified UDC−construction
inspector, certified UDC−electrical inspector, certified
UDC−HVAC inspector, or certified UDC−plumbing inspector
which has an expiration date after June 30, 2006 shall be contingent
upon the inspector obtaining at least 24 hours of acceptable
continuing education within the time period specified in s. Comm
5.08 and Table 5.06, except as provided in subd. 2.
2. A person who holds a certification as a certified UDC−
construction inspector, certified UDC−electrical inspector, certified
UDC−HVAC inspector, or certified UDC−plumbing inspector
may apply to the department for waiver of the continuing
education requirements under subd. 1. on the grounds of prolonged
illness or disability or similar circumstances. Each
application for waiver shall be considered individually on its merits
by the department.
3. A person who initially obtained his or her UDC−construction
inspector certification or UDC−HVAC inspector certification
by providing evidence of certification as a commercial building
inspector and whose request to renew his or her certification is
denied because of the failure to fulfill the continuing education
requirements of subd. 1., shall be required to take and pass the
UDC−construction inspector certification examination or UDC−
HVAC inspector certification examination in order to reacquire
the respective UDC inspector certification
263. No person may conduct the inspection of one− and 2−family dwellings for the purpose of administering and enforcing chs. Comm 20 to 25, unless the person holds one or more of the following certifications issued by the department:
1. Certified UDC−construction inspector.
2. Certified UDC−electrical inspector.
3. Certified UDC−HVAC inspector.
4. Certified UDC−plumbing inspector.
5. Certified soil erosion inspector.
6. Certified commercial electrical inspector.
7. Certified commercial plumbing inspector.
a. true
b. false
264. A person may apply for certification as a certified UDC−construction inspector by submitting all of the following:
a. An application, an application fee and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02.
b. Evidence that the person holds a certification as a commercial building inspector issued under s. Comm 5.61.
c. both a & b
d. neither a or b
265. A person who inspects the installation of manufactured homes as a certified UDC−construction inspector may not perform the inspection of a particular manufactured home if the person is, is employed by, or is an independent contractor of any of the following:
a. A manufactured home manufacturer who was directly involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.
b. A manufactured home salesperson who was directly involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.
c. An installer who was directly involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.
d. all of the above
e. only a & c
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5.635 UDC inspection agency. (1) GENERAL.
No person may engage in or offer to engage in the activities of
facilitating
plan review, issuance of
permits, or inspection of one− and 2−family dwellings in a municipality
where the department has jurisdiction pursuant to s.
101.651 (3) (b), Stats., unless the person obtains a registration
from the department as a registered UDC inspection agency.
Note: Section 990.01 (26), Stats., states that the term “person” includes all partnerships,
associations and bodies politic or corporate.
(2) APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION. A person applying for a
UDC inspection agency registration shall submit all of the following:
(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.
(b) An application fee and a registration fee in accordance with
s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.
(3) QUALIFICATIONS FOR REGISTRATION. The person applying
for a UDC inspection agency registration shall be the owner of the
business, a partner in the business applying on behalf of a partnership,
or the chairman of the board or chief executive officer applying
on behalf of the corporation.
(4) RESPONSIBILITIES. A person who is responsible for facilitating
plan
review, issuance of
and the inspections for one− and 2−family dwellings as a registered
UDC inspection agency shall be responsible for all of the
following:
(a) Utilizing persons appropriately certified under s. Comm
5.63 to review the plans, issue the permits and conduct the inspections.
(b) Making the records relative to the plan review, issuance of
permits and inspections available to the department upon request.
(c) Providing inspection services for all inspections required
under s. Comm 20.10.
(d) Cooperating with the department in any program monitoring,
enforcement activities, and investigations.
(e) Following all procedures established by the department for
UDC enforcement by inspection agencies.
(f) Reporting to the department in writing when the agency has
been dismissed by the owner or builder.
(g) Making any records associated with their permit, plan
review and inspection activities available to the permit holder
upon request.
(5) RENEWAL. (a) A person may renew his or her registration
as a UDC inspection agency.
(b) A UDC inspection agency registration shall be renewed in
accordance with s. Comm 5.07.
266. No person may engage in or offer to engage in the activities of facilitating plan review, issuance of Wisconsin uniform building permits, or inspection of one− and 2−family dwellings in a municipality where the department has jurisdiction pursuant to s.101.651 (3) (b), Stats., unless the person obtains a registration from the department as a registered UDC inspection agency.
a. true
b. false
267. The person applying for a UDC inspection agency registration shall be the_______.
a. owner of the business
b. a partner in the business applying on behalf of a partnership
c. the chairman of the board or chief executive officer applying on behalf of the corporation
d. all of the above
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Use the below Comm 21.40 to answer questions 268-275
Comm 21.40 Installation standards. (1) (a) The
installation of a manufactured home produced on or after April 1,
2007 shall comply with procedures acceptable to the department.
(b) Acceptable installation procedures shall address all of the
following:
1. Soil mechanics.
2. Site preparation.
3. Structural support, stabilization and anchorage.
4. Setting.
5. Ventilation of crawl spaces.
6. Connections, plumbing, electrical, HVAC.
7. Joining of home sections.
Note: Acceptable installation practices can be found through the Safety and Buildings
Division’s website at www.commerce.state.wi.us/SB or by contacting the Safety
and Buildings Division at (608) 264−9596.
Note: The design and construction of basements and perimeter foundations to support
manufactured homes is addressed under subchapter V.
(2) (a) Except as provided in par. (b), the installation of a
manufactured home produced before April 1, 2007 shall be
installed in conformance with the requirements in effect at the
time the manufactured home was produced.
(b) The installation of a manufactured home produced before
April 1, 2007 to be installed on piers shall conform to at least all
of the following requirements:
1. No footing may be placed upon unprepared fill material,
topsoil, alluvial soil or mud. All organic matter shall be removed
from the area that will be beneath any footing.
2. The soil bearing capacity shall be determined through test
by a pocket penetrometer or other means of analysis. If the soil
bearing capacity under each intended pier location is less than
2000 pounds per square foot, piers shall be located in accordance
with the manufacturer’s instructions.
3. The home site shall be graded to permit water to drain from
under the home and away from the home for a minimum of 5 feet
from the home.
4. Every pier shall be supported by a footing. Each footing
shall be no less than a nominal 16 inches by 16 inches.
5. Each footing shall consist of one of the following:
a. One nominal 4–inch by 16–inch by 16–inch solid concrete
block or 2 nominal 4–inch by 8–inch by 16–inch solid concrete
blocks. If a single block pier and 2 footing blocks are used, the 2
footing blocks shall be positioned with the joint parallel to the
main frame. If a double block pier and 2 footing blocks are used,
the 2 footing blocks shall be positioned with the joint either parallel
or perpendicular to the main frame.
b. A 16–inch by 16–inch pad constructed of acrylonitrile−butadiene−
styrene (ABS) having a rated load bearing capacity of not
less than 6000 pounds.
c. An 18–inch diameter hole bored to below the frost line or
to un-fractured bedrock and filled with poured concrete.
d. Any other materials and systems approved in advance by
the department.
6. Piers shall be constructed of concrete blocks, manufactured
steel stands or manufactured concrete stands. Manufactured
stands shall be labeled for use as piers for manufactured homes.
7. Piers constructed of single stacked concrete blocks shall be
limited to a height of 36 inches. Piers constructed of concrete
blocks and exceeding 36 inches but less than 80 inches shall be
constructed using double stacked blocks with each layer opposing
the direction of the layer underneath it. Piers constructed of concrete
blocks and exceeding 80 inches shall be constructed using
double blocks laid in concrete mortar with each layer opposing the
direction of the layer underneath it and with each core filled with
concrete and a 1/2–inch steel reinforcing rod.
8. All concrete blocks shall be 2–core design, construction
grade blocks having nominal dimensions of at least 8 inches by 8
inches by 16 inches. All concrete blocks shall be placed with the
cores open vertically. The concrete block nearest the main frame
of the manufactured home shall be perpendicular to the linear
direction of the frame. No concrete block may contact the main
frame of the home.
9. Alternative materials may be used for pier installations provided
they are approved in advance by the department.
10. Piers shall be placed under the main frame of the chassis
at intervals of not more than 7 feet on–center and no more than 3
feet from the exterior side of each end wall. The 7–foot spacing
requirement may be varied as permitted by footing, spacing and
soil capacity tables provided by the home manufacturer.
11. Piers shall be placed under the bearing points of
clear–span openings of 4 feet or more in center mating walls.
12. Piers shall be plumb and centered under the contact area
at the point of support.
13. Each pier shall be capped with a solid concrete block or
a solid wood block, having a nominal thickness of at least 2 inches.
The cap shall be the same width and length as the top of the pier.
The cap shall consist of no more than 2 pieces. Two–piece caps
shall be positioned with the joint perpendicular to the main frame.
14. Where shims are utilized, wood shims shall be installed
between the pier cap and the frame. Shims shall be driven from
opposing sides and shall be no less than 4 inches by 8 inches.
15. Wood caps and shims shall be at least equal to No. 2 spruce
pine fir having a minimum fiber bending stress rating of 1200 psi.
All wood caps shall be the same species of wood, and all shims
shall be the same species of wood.
16. The combination of a nominal 2−inch solid concrete block
or a
nominal 2−inch wood cap plus shims shall not exceed 3 _
inches.
17. A minimum clearance of 12 inches shall be maintained
beneath the lowest point of the main frame in the area of any utility
connection. A minimum clearance of 12 inches shall also be maintained
under the home for at least 75% of the home. The remainder
of the home may be less than 12 inches above the ground but
may not touch the ground.
History:
CR 05−113: cr. Register December 2006 No. 612, eff. 4−1−07.
268. What Code section covers the
Manufactured Homes contained in Comm 21?
a.
21.31
b.
21.08
c.
21.40
d.
all of the above
269. Acceptable installation procedures shall address all of the following:
a. Soil mechanics & Site preparation.
b. Structural support, stabilization and anchorage & Setting.
c. Ventilation of crawl spaces & Connections, plumbing, electrical, HVAC.
d. Joining of home sections.
e. all of the above
270. The installation of a manufactured home produced before April 1, 2007 shall be installed in conformance with the requirements in effect at the time the manufactured home was produced.
a. true
b. false
271. The installation of a manufactured home produced before April 1, 2007 to be installed on piers shall conform to at least all of the following requirements:
a.. No footing may be placed upon unprepared fill material, topsoil, alluvial soil or mud. All organic matter shall be removed from the area that will be beneath any footing.
b. The soil bearing capacity shall be determined through test by a pocket penetrometer or other means of analysis. If the soil bearing capacity under each intended pier location is less than 2000 pounds per square foot, piers shall be located in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions.
c. The home site shall be graded to permit water to drain from under the home and away from the home for a minimum of 5 feet from the home.
d. all of the above
272. Piers shall be plumb and centered under the contact area at the point of support.
a. true
b.
false
273. Each pier shall be capped with a solid concrete block or a solid wood block, having a nominal thickness of at least 2 inches. The cap shall be the same width and length as the top of the pier. The cap shall consist of no more than 2 pieces. Three, four, and two–piece caps shall be positioned with the joint perpendicular to the main frame.
a. true
b. false
274. A minimum clearance of 12 inches shall be maintained beneath the lowest point of the main frame in the area of any utility connection. A minimum clearance of 12 inches shall also be maintained under the home for at least 50% of the home. The remainder of the home may be less than 12 inches above the ground and may touch the ground.
a. true
b. false
275. The effective date for Comm 21.40 is 4-1-07.
a. true
b.
false
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comm 5 Definitions-Use below definitions to answer question 276-360
Comm 5.003 Definitions. In this chapter:
(1) “Approved” means accepted by the department.
(1m) “ASME” means American society of mechanical engineers.
(2) “Automatic fire sprinkler contractor” has the meaning
specified under s. 145.01 (1), Stats.
Note: Under section 145.01 (1), Stats., “automatic fire sprinkler contractor” means
any individual, firm or corporation who has paid the annual license fee and obtained
a license to conduct a business in the design, installation, maintenance or repair of
automatic fire sprinkler systems.
(3) “Automatic fire sprinkler system” has the meaning specified
under s. 145.01 (2), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (2), Stats., “automatic fire sprinkler system”, for fire protection
purposes, means an integrated system of underground and overhead piping
designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards. The system
includes a suitable water supply, such as a gravity tank, fire pump, reservoir or pressure
tank or connection beginning at the supply side of an approved gate valve located
at or near the property line where the pipe or piping system provides water used exclusively
for fire protection and related appurtenances and to standpipes connected to
automatic sprinkler systems. The portion of the sprinkler system above ground is a
network of specially sized or hydraulically designed piping installed in a building,
structure or area, generally overhead, and to which sprinklers are connected in a systematic
pattern. The system includes a controlling valve and a device for actuating
an alarm when the system is in operation. The system is usually activated by heat
from a fire and discharges water over the fire area.
(4) “Automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice” has the
meaning specified under s. 145.01 (3), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (3), Stats., “automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice”
means any person other than an automatic fire sprinkler system contractor or a journeyman
automatic fire sprinkler system fitter who is engaged in learning and assisting
in the installation of automatic fire sprinkler systems and who is indentured under ch.
106, Stats.
(5) “Blasting” means any method of loosening, moving or
shattering masses of solid matter by use of an explosive.
(6) “Blasting operation” means any enterprise or activity
involving blasting.
(6m) “Branch” means an office, other than the main business
office, involved in the sales of manufactured homes that advertises
as a sales location, displays new or used homes, takes sales
calls, is staffed by licensed salespersons, has signage of a licensed
dealer, and accepts offers or contracts on manufactured homes.
(6s) “Broker” means a manufactured home dealer who has no
sales lot, no inventory and no ownership interest in the manufactured
homes being sold.
(7) “Building permit” means an official document or certificate
granting permission to perform construction or erosion control
work, except for electrical, plumbing or HVAC, on a one− or
2−family dwelling.
(8) “Business establishment” means any industrial or commercial
organization or enterprise, including but not limited to a
proprietorship, partnership, firm, business trust, joint venture,
syndicate, corporation or association.
(8m) “Cash price” means the manufactured home dealer asking
price including dealer installed options and accessories and
additional dealer mark−up, profit and transportation charges,
minus the dollar value of cash discounts.
(9) “Combustible liquid” means a liquid with a flash point at
or above 100_F.
(10) “Conflict of interest” means a certified inspector inspecting
work in which the inspector or the inspector’s employer, other
than the state or a municipality, has participated or has a monetary
or personal interest.
(11) “Damage” means defects caused by reasons other than
normal wear through home age and usage.
(13) “Department” means the department of commerce.
(14) “Direct supervision” means to assume the responsibility
of an activity of others and its results by providing oversight and
guidance at the site where the activity is being conducted.
(15) “Dwelling contractor” means any person, firm or corporation
engaged in the business of performing construction or erosion
control work on a one− or 2− family dwelling.
Note: Pursuant to s. 101.654 (1) (b), Stats., “dwelling contractor” does not include
an owner of a dwelling who resides or will reside in the dwelling.
(16) “Electrical construction” means the installation of electrical
wiring. “Electrical construction” does not include the maintenance,
repair or fabrication of electrical equipment or the installation
of electrical wiring and equipment covered by ch. PSC 114.
(17) “Electrical wiring” means all equipment , wiring, material,
fittings, devices, appliances, fixtures and apparatus used for
the production, modification, regulation, control, distribution, utilization
or safeguarding of electrical energy for mechanical,
chemical, cosmetic, heating, lighting or similar purposes as covered
by the scope of ch. Comm 16.
(17m) “Financial statement” means a balance sheet showing
assets, liabilities and net worth.
(18) “Fireworks” has the meaning specified under s. 167.10
(1), Stats.
Note: Under s. 167.10 (1), Stats., “fireworks” means anything manufactured, processed
or packaged for exploding, emitting sparks or combustion which does not
have another common use, but does not include any of the following:
(a) Fuel or a lubricant.
(b) A firearm cartridge or shotgun shell.
(c) A flare used or possessed or sold for use as a signal in an emergency or in the
operation of a railway, aircraft, watercraft or motor vehicle.
(d) A match, cigarette lighter, stove, furnace, candle, lantern or space heater.
(e) A cap containing not more than one−quarter grain of explosive mixture, if the
cap is used or possessed or sold for use in a device which prevents direct bodily contact
with a cap when it is in place for explosion.
(f) A toy snake which contains no mercury.
(g) A model rocket engine.
(h) Tobacco and a tobacco product.
(i) A sparkler on a wire or wood stick not exceeding 36 inches in length that is
designed to produce audible or visible effects or to produce audible and visible
effects.
(j) A device designed to spray out paper confetti or streamers and which contains
less than one−quarter grain of explosive mixture.
(k) A fuseless device that is designed to produce audible or visible effects or audible
and visible effects, and that contains less than one−quarter grain of explosive mixture.
(L) A device that is designed primarily to burn pyrotechnic smoke−producing
mixtures, at a controlled rate, and that produces audible or visible effects, or audible
and visible effects.
(m) A cylindrical fountain that consists of one or more tubes and that is classified
by the federal department of transportation as a Division 1.4 explosive, as defined in
49 CFR 173.50.
(n) A cone fountain that is classified by the federal department of transportation
as a Division 1.4 explosive, as defined in 49 CFR 173.50.
(19) “Flammable liquid” means a liquid having a flash point
below 100_F and having a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psi
absolute at 100_F.
(20) “General supervision” means to assume the responsibility
of an activity of others and its results without being present at
the site where the activity is being conducted.
(21) “HVAC” means heating, ventilating and air conditioning.
(22) “HVAC equipment” means materials, piping, fittings,
devices, appliances, apparatus, controls and control wiring used
as part of or in connection with permanent heating, ventilating, air
conditioning or exhausting systems serving buildings. HVAC
equipment does not include residential bathroom fans and kitchen
hoods, water heaters, process heating equipment, and space heaters
such as masonry fireplaces and chimneys, factory−built fireplaces
and venting systems, decorative gas fireplaces, and wood−
burning stoves.
(23) “Incompetence” means conduct which evidences a lack
of competence or ability to discharge the duty required to protect
the health, safety and welfare of the public, lack of knowledge of
the fundamental principles of a particular trade or practice, or an
inability to apply those principles, or failure to maintain competency
in the current practices and methods applicable to the activity
and the state statutes and rules governing the activity.
(24) “Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter” has the
meaning specified under s. 145.01 (6), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (6), Stats., “journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter”
means any person other than an automatic fire sprinkler contractor who is engaged
in the practical installation of automatic fire sprinkler systems.
(25) “Journeyman plumber” has the meaning specified under
s. 145.01 (7), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (7), Stats., “journeyman plumber” means any person other
than a master plumber, who is engaged in the practical installation of plumbing.
(26) “Journeyman plumber−restricted” means a person
licensed under s. 145.14, Stats.
Note: See appendix for further explanatory material.
(26m) “Licensee” means any manufactured home dealer or
manufactured home salesperson or any person who is both a
manufactured home dealer and a manufactured home salesperson.
(27) “Listed device” has the meaning specified under s.
167.10 (1) (e), (f) and (i) to (n), Stats.
Note: See the note after the definition of “fireworks”, sub. (18), for the statutory
language of s. 167.10 (1) (e), (f) and (i) to (n).
(27e) “Main business office” means an office involved in the
sales of manufactured homes that is the primary management
location of the licensed manufactured home dealer.
(27m) “Manufactured home” has the meaning given in s.
101.91 (2), Stats.
Note: Under s. 101.91 (2), Stats., ”manufactured home” means any of the following:
(am) A structure that is designed to be used as a dwelling with or without a permanent
foundation and that is certified by the federal department of housing and urban
development as complying with the standards established under 42 USC 5401 to
5425.
(c) A mobile home, unless a mobile home is specifically excluded under the
applicable statute.
(27s) “Manufactured home dealer” has the meaning given in
s. 101.91 (3), Stats., except for a person who sells no more than
one new or used manufactured home in any one calendar year.
Note: Under s.101.91 (3), Stats., “manufactured home dealer” means a person
who, for a commission or other thing of value, sells, exchanges, buys or rents, or
offers or attempts to negotiate a sale or exchange of an interest in, manufactured
homes or who is engaged wholly or partially in the business of selling manufactured
homes, whether or not the manufactured homes are owned by the person, but does
not include:
(a) A receiver, trustee, personal representative, guardian, or other person
appointed by or acting under the judgment or order of any court.
(b) Any public officer while performing that officer’s official duty.
(c) Any employee of a person enumerated in par. (a) or (b).
(d) Any lender, as defined in s. 421.301 (22).
(e) A person transferring a manufactured home used for that person’s personal,
family or household purposes, if the transfer is an occasional sale and is not part of
the business of the transferor.
(27w) “Manufactured home community” has the meaning
given in s. 101.91 (5m), Stats.
Note: Under s. 101.91 (5m), Stats., “manufactured home community” means any
plot or plots of ground upon which 3 or more manufactured homes that are occupied
for dwelling or sleeping purposes are located. “Manufactured home community”
does not include a farm where the occupants of the manufactured homes are the
father, mother, son, daughter, brother or sister of the farm owner or operator or where
the occupants of the manufactured homes work on the farm.
(28) “Master plumber” has the meaning specified under s.
145.01 (8), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (8), Stats., “master plumber” means any person skilled in
the planning, superintending and the practical installation of plumbing and familiar
with the laws, rules and regulations governing the same.
(29) “Master plumber−restricted” means a person licensed
under s. 145.14, Stats.
Note: See appendix for further explanatory material.
(30) “Misconduct” means an act performed by an individual
relating to the responsibilities or duties for which the individual
has been licensed, registered or certified that jeopardizes the interests
of the public, including violation of federal or state laws, local
ordinances or administrative rules; preparation of deficient or falsified
reports; failure to submit information or reports required by
law or contract when requested by the municipality or the department;
conduct which evidences a lack of trustworthiness; misrepresentation
of qualifications such as education, experience or certification;
illegal entry of premises; misuse of funds; or
misrepresentation of authority.
(30m) “Multipurpose piping system” means a type of water
distribution system conveying potable water to plumbing fixtures
and appliances and automatic fire sprinklers with the intention of
serving both domestic water needs and fire protection needs
within a one− or 2−family dwelling or manufactured dwelling.
(31) “Municipality” means a city, village, town or county.
(32) “Negligence” means the failure to exercise the degree of
care and judgment to protect public health and safety normally
expected of an individual performing activities within the scope
of a license, certification or registration category.
(32e) “Net worth” means the difference between the asset and
liability values on a financial statement. Negative net worth is the
excess of liabilities over assets.
(32h) “New manufactured home” has the meaning given in s.
101.91 (11), Stats.
Note: Under s. 101.91 (11), Stats., “new manufactured home” means a manufactured
home that has never been occupied, used or sold for personal or business use.
(32m) “PECFA” means petroleum environmental cleanup
fund award, as established in s. 101.143, Stats.
(33) “Pipelayer” has the meaning specified under s. 145.01
(9), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (9), Stats., “pipelayer” means a person registered under s.
145.07 (11).
(34) “Plumbing” has the meaning specified under s. 145.01
(10), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (10), Stats., “plumbing” means and includes:
(a) All piping, fixtures, appliances, equipment, devices and appurtenances in
connection with the water supply, water distribution and drainage systems, including
hot water storage tanks, water softeners and water heaters connected with such water
and drainage systems and also includes the installation thereof.
(b) The construction, connection or installation of any drain or waste piping system
from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the
mains or other sewage system terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject
to easement for highway purposes, including private sewage systems, and the alteration
of any such systems, drains or waste piping.
(c) The water service piping from the outside or proposed outside foundation
walls of any building to the main or other water utility service terminal within bounds
of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes and its connections.
(d) The water pressure system other than municipal systems as provided in ch.
281.
(e) A plumbing and drainage system so designed and vent piping so installed as
to keep the air within the system in free circulation and movement; to prevent with
a margin of safety unequal air pressures of such force as might blow, siphon or affect
trap seals, or retard the discharge from plumbing fixtures, or permit sewer air to
escape into the building; to prohibit cross−connection, contamination or pollution of
the potable water supply and distribution systems; and to provide an adequate supply
of water to properly serve, cleanse and operate all fixtures, equipment, appurtenances
and appliances served by the plumbing system.
(35) “Plumbing appliance’ means any one of a class of plumbing
devices which is intended to perform a special function. The
operation or control of the appliance may be dependent upon one
or more energized components, such as motors, controls, heating
elements, or pressure or temperature sensing elements. The
devices may be manually adjusted or controlled by the user or
operator, or may operate automatically through one or more of the
following actions: a time cycle, a temperature range, a pressure
range, a measured volume or weight.
(36) “Plumbing apprentice” has the meaning specified under
s. 145.01 (11), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (11), Stats., “plumbing apprentice” means any person other
than a journeyman or master plumber who is engaged in learning and assisting in the
installation of plumbing and drainage.
(37) “Place of employment” has the meaning specified under
s. 101.01 (11), Stats.
Note: Under s. 101.01 (11), Stats., “place of employment” includes every place,
whether indoors or out or underground and the premises appurtenant thereto where
either temporarily or permanently any industry, trade or business is carried on, or
where any process or operation, directly or indirectly related to any industry, trade
or business, is carried on, and where any person is, directly or indirectly, employed
by another for direct or indirect gain or profit, but does not include any place where
persons are employed in private domestic service which does not involve the use of
mechanical power or in farming. “Farming” includes those activities specified in s.
102.04 (3), and also includes the transportation of farm products, supplies or equipment
directly to the farm by the operator of said farm or employees for use thereon,
if such activities are directly or indirectly for the purpose of producing commodities
for market, or as an accessory to such production. When used with relation to building
codes, “place of employment” does not include an adult family home, as defined
in s. 50.01 (1), or, except for the purposes of s. 101.11, a previously constructed building
used as a community−based residential facility, as defined in s. 50.01 (1g), which
serves 20 or fewer unrelated residents.
(38) “POWTS” means private onsite wastewater treatment
system and has the meaning specified under s. 145.01 (12), Stats.,
for “private sewage system”.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (12), Stats., “private sewage system” means a sewage treatment
and disposal system serving a single structure with a septic tank and soil absorption
field located on the same parcel as the structure. This term also means an alternative
sewage system approved by the department including a substitute for the septic
tank or soil absorption field, a holding tank, a system serving more than one structure
or a system located on a different parcel than the structure. A private sewage system
may be owned by the property owner or by a special purpose district.
(39) “Private interceptor main sewer” has the meaning specified
under s. Comm 81.01 (193).
Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (193) “private interceptor main sewer” means a privately
owned sewer serving 2 or more buildings and not directly controlled by a public
authority.
(40) “Private water main” has the meaning specified under s.
Comm 81.01 (195).
Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (195) “private water main” means a privately owned
water main serving 2 or more buildings and not directly controlled by a public authority.
(41) “Process piping” means that piping which is separated
from a water supply system or drain system by the appropriate
methods or means specified under ch. Comm 82 and is part of a
system used exclusively for refining, manufacturing, industrial or
shipping purposes of every character and description.
(42) “Public building” has the meaning specified under s.
101.01 (12), Stats.
Note: Under s. 101.01 (12), Stats., “public building” means any structure, including
exterior parts of such building, such as a porch, exterior platform or steps providing
means of ingress or egress, used in whole or in part as a place of resort, assemblage,
lodging, trade, traffic, occupancy, or use by the public or by 3 or more tenants.
When used in relation to building codes, “public building” does not include a previously
constructed building used as a community−based residential facility as
defined in s. 50.01 (1g) which serves 20 or fewer unrelated residents or an adult family
home, as defined in s. 50.01 (1).
(43) “Refrigeration equipment” has the meaning specified
under s. 101.177 (1) (c), Stats.
Note: Under s. 101.177 (1) (c), Stats., “refrigeration equipment” means mechanical
vapor compression refrigeration equipment except for a mobile air conditioner,
as defined in s. 100.45 (1) (b), Stats., or trailer refrigeration equipment, as defined in
s. 100.45 (1) (e), Stats.
(44) “Registered learner” has the meaning specified under s.
145.01 (13), Stats.
a restricted plumber licensee, who is learning a limited type of plumbing and is
engaged in assisting a restricted plumber licensee.
(45) “Rental unit” has the meaning specified under s. 101.122
(1) (e), Stats.
Note: Under s. 101.122 (1) (e), Stats., “rental unit” means any rented dwelling
units. “Rental unit” does not include:
1. Any building containing up to 4 dwelling units, one of which is owner−occupied.
2. Any building constructed after December 1, 1978, which contains up to 2
dwelling units and which is less than 10 years old.
3. Any building constructed after April 15, 1976, which contains more than 2
dwelling units and which is less than 10 years old.
4. Any dwelling unit not rented at any time from November 1 to March 31.
(46) ”Restricted plumber licensee” has the meaning specified
under s. 145.01 (14), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (14), Stats., “restricted plumber licensee” means any person
licensed as a master plumber (restricted) or a journeyman plumber (restricted) under
s. 145.14.
(46m) “Retail purchaser” means any purchaser not licensed
as a manufactured home dealer or a manufactured home salesperson.
(47) “Sanitary building sewer” has the meaning specified
under s. Comm 81.01 (45).
Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (45) “sanitary building sewer” means a building
sewer which conveys wastewater consisting in part of domestic wastewater.
(47m) “Site” means any plot of land which is owned or
rented, and used or intended to be used for the accommodation of
a manufactured home for residential purposes.
(48) “Storm building sewer” has the meaning specified under
s. Comm 81.01 (46).
Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (46) “storm building sewer” means a building sewer
which conveys storm water wastes or clear water wastes, or both.
(48m) “UDC” means chs. Comm 20 to 25, the Wisconsin uniform
dwelling code.
(48s) “Used manufactured home” has the meaning given in
s. 101.91 (12), Stats.
Note: Under s.101.91 (12), Stats., “used manufactured home” means a manufactured
home that has previously been occupied, used or sold for personal or business
use.
(49) “Utility contractor” has the meaning specified under s.
145.01 (15), Stats.
Note: Under s. 145.01 (15), Stats., “utility contractor” means a person licensed
under s. 145.07 (10).
(50) “Water service” has the meaning specified under s.
Comm 81.01 (282).
Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (282) “water service” means that portion of a water
supply system from the water main or private water supply to the building control
valve.
(51) “Water supply system” has the meaning specified under
s. Comm 81.01 (284).
Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (284) “water supply system” means the piping of a
private water main, water service and water distribution system, fixture supply connectors,
fittings, valves, and appurtenances through which water is conveyed to
points of usage such as plumbing fixtures, plumbing appliances, water using equipment
or other piping systems to be served.
276. __________________________ means a building sewer which conveys wastewater consisting in part of domestic wastewater.
a. sanitary building sewer
b. storm building sewer
c. water service
d. water supply system
277. _______________________ means a building sewer which conveys storm water wastes or clear water wastes, or both.
a. sanitary building sewer
b. storm building sewer
c. water service
d. water supply system
278. __________________________ means that portion of a water supply system from the water main or private water supply to the building control valve.
a. sanitary building sewer
b. storm building sewer
c. water service
d. water supply system
279. _________________________ means the piping of a private water main, water service and water distribution system, fixture supply connectors, fittings, valves, and appurtenances through which water is conveyed to points of usage such as plumbing fixtures, plumbing appliances, water using equipment or other piping systems to be served.
a. sanitary building sewer
b. storm building sewer
c. water service
d. water supply system
280. __________________________ means a person, other than a restricted plumber licensee, who is learning a limited type of plumbing and is engaged in assisting a restricted plumber licensee.
a. registered learner
b. rental unit
c. retail purchaser
d. site
281. __________________________ means any rented dwelling units.
a. registered learner
b. rental unit
c. retail purchaser
d. site
282. ____________________ means any purchaser not licensed as a manufactured home dealer or a manufactured home salesperson.
a. registered learner
b. rental unit
c. retail purchaser
d. site
283. _________________________ means any plot of land which is owned or rented, and used or intended to be used for the accommodation of a manufactured home for residential purposes.
a. registered learner
b. rental unit
c. retail purchaser
d. site
284. Rental unit” does include: any building containing up to 4 dwelling units, one of which is owner−occupied.
a. true
b. false
285. “Rental unit” does include: any building constructed after December 1, 1978, which contains up to 2 dwelling units and which is less than 10 years old.
a. true
b. false
286. “Rental unit” does include: any building constructed after April 15, 1976, which contains more than 2 dwelling units and which is less than 10 years old.
a. true
b. false
287. “Rental unit” does include: any dwelling unit not rented at any time from November 1 to March 31.
a. true
b. false
288. ______________________ means any person licensed as a master plumber (restricted) or a journeyman plumber (restricted) under s. 145.14.
a. restricted plumber licensee
b. Master plumber−restricted
c. plumbing apprentice
d. master plumber
289. ______________________ means a person licensed under s. 145.14, Stats.
a. restricted plumber licensee
b. Master plumber−restricted
c. plumbing apprentice
d. master plumber
290. ______________________ means any person other than a journeyman or master plumber who is engaged in learning and assisting in the installation of plumbing and drainage.
a. restricted plumber licensee
b. Master plumber−restricted
c. plumbing apprentice
d. master plumber
291. ______________________ means any person skilled in the planning, superintending and the practical installation of plumbing and familiar with the laws, rules and regulations governing the same.
a. restricted plumber licensee
b. Master plumber−restricted
c. plumbing apprentice
d. master plumber
292. ____________________ means any structure, including exterior parts of such building, such as a porch, exterior platform or steps providing means of ingress or egress, used in whole or in part as a place of resort, assemblage, lodging, trade, traffic, occupancy, or use by the public or by 3 or more tenants.
a. public building
b. UDC
c. POWTS
d. place of employment
293. ____________________ means chs. Comm 20 to 25, the Wisconsin uniform dwelling code.
a. public building
b. UDC
c. POWTS
d. place of employment
294. ____________________ means private onsite wastewater treatment system and has the meaning specified under s. 145.01 (12), Stats., for “private sewage system”.
a. public building
b. UDC
c. POWTS
d. place of employment
295. ____________________ place of employment” includes every place, whether indoors or out or underground and the premises appurtenant thereto where either temporarily or permanently any industry, trade or business is carried on, or where any process or operation, directly or indirectly related to any industry, trade or business, is carried on, and where any person is, directly or indirectly, employed by another for direct or indirect gain or profit, but does not include any place where persons are employed in private domestic service which does not involve the use of mechanical power or in farming.
a. public building
b. UDC
c. POWTS
d. place of employment
296. “public building” means any structure, including exterior parts of such building, such as a porch, exterior platform or steps providing means of ingress or egress, used in whole or in part as a place of resort, assemblage, lodging, trade, traffic, occupancy, or use by the public or by ____ or more tenants.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 20
297. When used in relation to building codes, “public building” does not include a previously constructed building used as a community−based residential facility as defined in s. 50.01 (1g) which serves ____ or fewer unrelated residents or an adult family
home, as defined in s. 50.01 (1).
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 20
298. “place of employment” includes every place, whether indoors or out or underground and the premises appurtenant thereto where either temporarily or permanently any industry, trade or business is carried on, or where any process or operation, directly or indirectly related to any ____________________, is carried on, and where any person is, directly or indirectly, employed by another for direct or indirect gain or profit, but does not include any place where persons are employed in private domestic service which does not involve the use of mechanical power or in farming.
a. industry
b. trade
c. business
d. all of the above
299. ________________ includes those activities specified in s. 102.04 (3), and also includes the transportation of farm products, supplies or equipment directly to the farm by the operator of said farm or employees for use thereon, if such activities are directly or indirectly for the purpose of producing commodities for market, or as an accessory to such production.
a. farming
b. place of business
c. both a & b
d. neither a or b
300. _________________ means a sewage treatment and disposal system serving a single structure with a septic tank and soil absorption field located on the same parcel as the structure. This term also means an alternative sewage system approved by the department including a substitute for the septic tank or soil absorption field, a holding tank, a system serving more than one structure or a system located on a different parcel than the structure. A private sewage system may be owned by the property owner or by a special purpose district.
a. private sewage system
b. Powts
c. both a & b
d. neither a or b
301. ______________________ means a privately owned water main serving 2 or more buildings and not directly controlled by a public authority.
a. private water main
b. PECFA
c. plumbing appliance
d. process piping
302. _____________________________ means petroleum environmental cleanup fund award, as established in s. 101.143, Stats.
a. private water main
b. PECFA
c. plumbing appliance
d. process piping
303. _____________________________ means any one of a class of plumbing devices which is intended to perform a special function. The operation or control of the appliance may be dependent upon one or more energized components, such as motors, controls, heating elements, or pressure or temperature sensing elements. The devices may be manually adjusted or controlled by the user or operator, or may operate automatically through one or more of the following actions: a time cycle, a temperature range, a pressure range, a measured volume or weight.
a. private water main
b. PECFA
c. plumbing appliance
d. process piping
304._____________________________ means that piping which is separated from a water supply system or drain system by the appropriate methods or means specified under ch. Comm 82 and is part of a system used exclusively for refining, manufacturing, industrial or shipping purposes of every character and description.
a. private water main
b. PECFA
c. plumbing appliance
d. process piping
305. “plumbing” means and includes: all piping, fixtures, appliances, equipment, devices and appurtenances in connection with the water supply, water distribution and drainage systems, including hot water storage tanks, water softeners and water heaters connected with such water and drainage systems and also includes the installation thereof.
a. true
b. false
306. “plumbing” means and includes: the construction, connection or installation of any drain or waste piping system from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the mains or other sewage system terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes, including private sewage systems, and the alteration of any such systems, drains or waste piping.
a. true
b. false
307. “Plumbing” means and includes: the water service piping from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the main or other water utility service terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes and its connections.
a. true
b. false
308. “Plumbing” means and includes: the water pressure system other than municipal systems as provided in ch. 281.
b. false
309. “Plumbing” means and includes: a plumbing and drainage system so designed and vent piping so installed as to keep the air within the system in free circulation and movement; to prevent with a margin of safety unequal air pressures of such force as might blow, siphon or affect trap seals, or retard the discharge from plumbing fixtures, or permit sewer air to escape into the building; to prohibit cross−connection, contamination or pollution of the potable water supply and distribution systems; and to provide an adequate supply of water to properly serve, cleanse and operate all fixtures, equipment, appurtenances and appliances served by the plumbing system.
a. true
b. false
310. ___________________________ means any plot or plots of ground upon which 3 or more manufactured homes that are occupied for dwelling or sleeping purposes are located. “Manufactured home community” does not include a farm where the occupants of the manufactured homes are the father, mother, son, daughter, brother or sister of the farm owner or operator or where the occupants of the manufactured homes work on the farm.
a. manufactured home community
b. Municipality
c. New manufactured home
d. Use manufactured home
311. ___________________________ means a city, village, town or county.
a. manufactured home community
b. Municipality
c. New manufactured home
d. Use manufactured home
312. ___________________________ means a manufactured home that has never been occupied, used or sold for personal or business use.
a. manufactured home community
b. Municipality
c. New manufactured home
d. Use manufactured home
313. ____________________________ means a manufactured home that has previously been occupied, used or sold for personal or business use.
a. manufactured home community
b. Municipality
c. New manufactured home
d. Use manufactured home
314. ______________________________ means 12 consecutive months.
a. year
b. Main business office
c. Listed device
d. General supervision
315. ______________________________ means an office involved in the sales of manufactured homes that is the primary management location of the licensed manufactured home dealer.
a. year
b. Main business office
c. Listed device
d. General supervision
316. ______________________________ has the meaning specified under s. 167.10 (1) (e), (f) and (i) to (n), Stats.
a. year
b. Main business office
c. Listed device
d. General supervision
317. ______________________________ means to assume the responsibility of an activity of others and its results without being present at the site where the activity is being conducted.
a. year
b. Main business office
c. Listed device
d. General supervision
318. _________________________ means conduct which evidences a lack of competence or ability to discharge the duty required to protect the health, safety and welfare of the public, lack of knowledge of the fundamental principles of a particular trade or practice, or an inability to apply those principles, or failure to maintain competency in the current practices and methods applicable to the activity and the state statutes and rules governing the activity.
a. Incompetence
b. Misconduct
c. Conflict of interest
d. Damage
319. _________________________ means an act performed by an individual relating to the responsibilities or duties for which the individual has been licensed, registered or certified that jeopardizes the interests of the public, including violation of federal or state laws, local ordinances or administrative rules; preparation of deficient or falsified reports; failure to submit information or reports required by law or contract when requested by the municipality or the department; conduct which evidences a lack of trustworthiness; misrepresentation of qualifications such as education, experience or certification; illegal entry of premises; misuse of funds; or misrepresentation of authority.
a. Incompetence
b. Misconduct
c. Conflict of interest
d. Damage
320. _________________________ means a certified inspector inspecting work in which the inspector or the inspector’s employer, other than the state or a municipality, has participated or has a monetary or personal interest.
a. Incompetence
b. Misconduct
c. Conflict of interest
d. Damage
321. _________________________ means defects caused by reasons other than normal wear through home age and usage.
a. Incompetence
b. Misconduct
c. Conflict of interest
d. Damage
322. ___________________________ means any industrial or commercial organization or enterprise, including but not limited to a proprietorship, partnership, firm, business trust, joint venture, syndicate, corporation or association.
a. Business Establishment
b. Department of Commerce
c. Direct supervision
d. Broker
323. _____________________________ means the department of commerce.
a. Business Establishment
b. Department of Commerce
c. Direct supervision
d. Broker
324. _____________________________ means to assume the responsibility of an activity of others and its results by providing oversight and guidance at the site where the activity is being conducted.
a. Business Establishment
b. Department of Commerce
c. Direct supervision
d. Broker
325. _____________________________ means a manufactured home dealer who has no sales lot, no inventory and no ownership interest in the manufactured homes being sold.
a. Business Establishment
b. Department of Commerce
c. Direct supervision
d. Broker
326. ______________________________ means accepted by the department.
a. Approved
b. ASME
c. Branch
d. Cash price
327. ______________________________ means American society of mechanical engineers.
a. Approved
b. ASME
c. Branch
d. Cash price
328. ______________________________ means an office, other than the main business office, involved in the sales of manufactured homes that advertises as a sales location, displays new or used homes, takes sales calls, is staffed by licensed salespersons, has signage of a licensed dealer, and accepts offers or contracts on manufactured homes.
a. Approved
b. ASME
c. Branch
d. Cash price
329._______________________________ means the manufactured home dealer asking price including dealer installed options and accessories and additional dealer mark−up, profit and transportation charges, minus the dollar value of cash discounts.
a. Approved
b. ASME
c. Branch
d. Cash price
330. _______________________________ means an official document or certificate granting permission to perform construction or erosion control work, except for electrical, plumbing or HVAC, on a one− or 2−family dwelling.
a. Building permit
b. Dwelling contractor
c. Financial Statement
d. Licensee
331. _______________________________ means any person, firm or corporation engaged in the business of performing construction or erosion control work on a one− or 2− family dwelling.
a. Building permit
b. Dwelling contractor
c. Financial Statement
d. Licensee
332. _______________________________ means a balance sheet showing assets, liabilities and net worth.
a. Building permit
b. Dwelling contractor
c. Financial Statement
d. Licensee
333. _______________________________ means any manufactured home dealer or manufactured home salesperson or any person who is both a manufactured home dealer and a manufactured home salesperson.
a. Building permit
b. Dwelling contractor
c. Financial Statement
d. Licensee
334. ________________________________ means a person licensed under s. 145.14, Stats.
a. Journeyman plumber−restricted
b. Journeyman plumber
c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter
d. Automatic fire sprinkler system
e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice
f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor
335._________________________________ means any person other than a master plumber, who is engaged in the practical installation of plumbing.
a. Journeyman plumber−restricted
b. Journeyman plumber
c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter
d. Automatic fire sprinkler system
e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice
f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor
336._________________________________ means any person other than an automatic fire sprinkler contractor who is engaged in the practical installation of automatic fire sprinkler systems.
a. Journeyman plumber−restricted
b. Journeyman plumber
c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter
d. Automatic fire sprinkler system
e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice
f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor
337. _________________________________ for fire protection purposes, means an integrated system of underground and overhead piping designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards.
a. Journeyman plumber−restricted
b. Journeyman plumber
c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter
d. Automatic fire sprinkler system
e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice
f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor
338. _________________________________ means any person other than an automatic fire sprinkler system contractor or a journeyman automatic fire sprinkler system fitter who is engaged in learning and assisting in the installation of automatic fire sprinkler systems and who is indentured under ch.106, Stats.
a. Journeyman plumber−restricted
b. Journeyman plumber
c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter
d. Automatic fire sprinkler system
e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice
f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor
339. _________________________________ means any individual, firm or corporation who has paid the annual license fee and obtained a license to conduct a business in the design, installation, maintenance or repair of automatic fire sprinkler systems.
a. Journeyman plumber−restricted
b. Journeyman plumber
c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter
d. Automatic fire sprinkler system
e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice
f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor
340 ______________________________ means any method of loosening, moving or shattering masses of solid matter by use of an explosive.
a. Blasting
b. Blasting Operation
c. Fireworks
d. Flammable Liquid
341. ______________________________ means any enterprise or activity involving blasting.
a. Blasting
b. Blasting Operation
c. Fireworks
d. Flammable Liquid
342. ______________________________ means anything manufactured, processed or packaged for exploding, emitting sparks or combustion which does not have another common use
a. Blasting
b. Blasting Operation
c. Fireworks
d. Flammable Liquid
343._______________________________ means a liquid having a flash point below 100_F and having a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psi absolute at 100_F.
a. Blasting
b. Blasting Operation
c. Fireworks
d. Flammable Liquid
344.__________________________ means a privately owned sewer serving 2 or more buildings and not directly controlled by a public authority.
a. private interceptor main sewer
b. Multipurpose piping system
c. refrigeration equipment
d. HVAC
e. HVAC equipment
345. __________________________ means a type of water distribution system conveying potable water to plumbing fixtures and appliances and automatic fire sprinklers with the intention of serving both domestic water needs and fire protection needs within a one− or 2−family dwelling or manufactured dwelling.
a. private interceptor main sewer
b. Multipurpose piping system
c. refrigeration equipment
d. HVAC
e. HVAC equipment
346. __________________________ means mechanical vapor compression refrigeration equipment except for a mobile air conditioner, as defined in s. 100.45 (1) (b), Stats., or trailer refrigeration equipment, as defined in s. 100.45 (1) (e), Stats.
a. private interceptor main sewer
b. Multipurpose piping system
c. refrigeration equipment
d. HVAC
e. HVAC equipment
347. __________________________ means heating, ventilating and air conditioning.
a. private interceptor main sewer
b. Multipurpose piping system
c. refrigeration equipment
d. HVAC
e. HVAC equipment
348. __________________________ means materials, piping, fittings, devices, appliances, apparatus, controls and control wiring used as part of or in connection with permanent heating, ventilating, air conditioning or exhausting systems serving buildings. HVAC equipment does not include residential bathroom fans and kitchen hoods, water heaters, process heating equipment, and space heaters such as masonry fireplaces and chimneys, factory−built fireplaces and venting systems, decorative gas fireplaces, and wood−burning stoves.
a. private interceptor main sewer
b. Multipurpose piping system
c. refrigeration equipment
d. HVAC
e. HVAC equipment
349. ___________________________ means the installation of electrical wiring. _________________ does not include the maintenance, repair or fabrication of electrical equipment or the installation of electrical wiring and equipment covered by ch. PSC 114.
a. Electrical Construction
b. Electrical wiring
c. Utility Contractor
d. Pipelayer
350. ___________________________ means all equipment , wiring, material, fittings, devices, appliances, fixtures and apparatus used for the production, modification, regulation, control, distribution, utilization or safeguarding of electrical energy for mechanical, chemical, cosmetic, heating, lighting or similar purposes as covered by the scope of ch. Comm 16.
a. Electrical Construction
b. Electrical wiring
c. Utility Contractor
d. Pipelayer
351. ___________________________ means a person licensed under s. 145.07 (10).
a. Electrical Construction
b. Electrical wiring
c. Utility Contractor
d. Pipelayer
352. ___________________________ means a person registered under s. 145.07 (11).
a. Electrical Construction
b. Electrical wiring
c. Utility Contractor
d. Pipelayer
353. ___________________________ means the failure to exercise the degree of care and judgment to protect public health and safety normally expected of an individual performing activities within the scope of a license, certification or registration category.
a. Negligence
b. Net worth
c. Manufactured home dealer
d. Manufactured home
354. ___________________________ means the difference between the asset and liability values on a financial statement. Negative net worth is the excess of liabilities over assets.
a. Negligence
b. Net worth
c. Manufactured home dealer
d. Manufactured home
355. ___________________________ means a person who, for a commission or other thing of value, sells, exchanges, buys or rents, or offers or attempts to negotiate a sale or exchange of an interest in, manufactured homes or who is engaged wholly or partially in the business of selling manufactured homes, whether or not the manufactured homes are owned by the person, but does not include:
a. Negligence
b. Net worth
c. Manufactured home dealer
d. Manufactured home
356. ___________________________ has the meaning given in s. 101.91 (2), Stats.
a. Negligence
b. Net worth
c. Manufactured home dealer
d. Manufactured home
357. “Manufactured home” means any of the following:
a. A structure that is designed to be used as a dwelling with or without a permanent
foundation
b. Is certified by the federal department of housing and urban development as complying with the standards established under 42 USC 5401 to 5425.
c. A mobile home, unless a mobile home is specifically excluded under the applicable statute.
d. all of the above.
358. “manufactured home dealer” means a person who, for a commission or other thing of value, sells, exchanges, buys or rents, or offers or attempts to negotiate a sale or exchange of an interest in, manufactured homes or who is engaged wholly or partially in the business of selling manufactured homes, whether or not the manufactured homes are owned by the person, but does not include:
a. A receiver, trustee, personal representative, guardian, or other person appointed by or acting under the judgment or order of any court.
b. Any public officer while performing that officer’s official duty.
c. Any employee of a person enumerated in par. (a) or (b).
d. Any lender, as defined in s. 421.301 (22).
e. A person transferring a manufactured home used for that person’s personal, family or household purposes, if the transfer is an occasional sale and is not part of the business of the transferor.
f. all of the above.
359. “Plumbing” means and includes:
a. All piping, fixtures, appliances, equipment, devices and appurtenances in connection with the water supply, water distribution and drainage systems, including hot water storage tanks, water softeners and water heaters connected with such water and drainage systems and also includes the installation thereof.
b. The construction, connection or installation of any drain or waste piping system from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the mains or other sewage system terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes, including private sewage systems, and the alteration of any such systems, drains or waste piping.
c. The water service piping from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the main or other water utility service terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes and its connections.
d. all of the above
360. “Plumbing” means and includes:
a. The water pressure system other than municipal systems as provided in ch.281.
b. A plumbing and drainage system so designed and vent piping so installed as to keep the air within the system in free circulation and movement; to prevent with a margin of safety unequal air pressures of such force as might blow, siphon or affect trap seals, or retard the discharge from plumbing fixtures, or permit sewer air to escape into the building; to prohibit cross−connection, contamination or pollution of the potable water supply and distribution systems; and to provide an adequate supply of water to properly serve, cleanse and operate all fixtures, equipment, appurtenances and appliances served by the plumbing system.
c. neither a or b.
d. both a & b.
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To obtain your Continuing Education Credits follow the below instructions.
Send by mail
-----------------------------Educational Course Attendance Verification Form -----------------------------
Attendee’s Name Date
Address
Credential Number Phone#
Course Title and Name Initial Manufactured Home Installer Qualifier Quiz
List each credential held by attendee
Credited Hours 12 hrs
Email address Fax#
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To be completed by Gary Klinka www.garyklinka.com My credential link #70172
Course Password Course ID#
Attendee passed the course with a greater than 70% score on Date
Instructor Signature