New 12 hr Initial Training for the Manufactured Home Installer Qualifier

www.garyklinka.com

 

Instructions to complete this course

  1. Download and print the “Manufactured Home Installer Manual”….click here.
  2. Print out entire quiz pages and circle the correct answers.
  3. Mail only the answer sheet to save on postage and to retain a copy of your completed course material.
  4. The course questions follow the “Manufactured Home Installer Manual” in order page by page.
  5. For your ease of use, page number identifiers are listed through out the course in bold print.
  6. Use the Comm 5 Licensing section below (study materials included) to answer questions 193-267.
  7. Use the Comm 21.40 Construction section below (study materials included) to answer questions 268-275.
  8. Use the Comm 5 Definitions section below (study materials included) to answer questions 276-360.

 

Notes for answering the following questions:

  1. If the answer for the question is both a and/or b and the answer both a & b is available, then mark the answer both a & b.
  2. The word “may” means maybe.
  3. The word “shall” means always.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

 

Use the Manufactured Home Installer Manual for questions 1-192

 

Reference pages 3-4 for questions 1-11

 

1. In accordance with Comm 21.40 (1), effective _____________, the installation of a manufactured home produced on or after April 1, 2007 shall comply with procedures acceptable to the department.

 

            a. March 1, 2007

            b. April 1, 2007

            c. February 1, 2007

            d. March 31, 2007

 

 

2. This manual contains a set of procedures that are acceptable to the department that addresses those items identified in ­­­­­­­­­­­­_________________________.

 

            a. Comm 21.40 (1) (b)

            b. Comm 22.40 (1) (b)

            c. Comm 20.40 (1) (b)

            d. Comm 23.40 (1) (b)

 

3. All manufactured homes manufactured on or after _______________ and installed in Wisconsin shall be installed in conformance with the provisions set forth in this manual.

 

            a. March 1, 2007

            b. April 1, 2007

            c. February 1, 2007

            d. March 31, 2007

 

Definitions

 

4. “______________________” means the department of commerce.

 

            a. Local inspector

            b. State inspector

            c. Madison

            d. Department

 

5. “___________________” means a complete manufactured home which when installed provides all the facilities for year–round residential occupancy.

 

            a. Manufactured home section

            b. Dwelling

            c. Home

            d. Manufactured home unit

 

6. “_______________________” has the meaning given in s. 101.91 (2), Stats.

 

            a. Manufactured home section

            b. Dwelling

            c. Home

            d. Manufactured home

 

7. Local authority having jurisdiction “_______” means the department.

 

            a. Local inspector

            b. State inspector

            c. Madison

            d. LAHJ

 

8. “________________” means a map delineating the flood hazard area and adopted by a county.

 

            a. Flood hazard area

            b. Base flood elevation

            c. Flood hazard map

            d. Flood plain

 

9. “_____________” means the greater of either (1) the special flood hazard area shown on the flood insurance rate map or (2) the area subject to flooding during the design flood and shown on a county’s flood hazard map, or otherwise legally designated.

 

            a. Flood hazard area

            b. Base flood elevation

            c. Flood hazard map

            d. Flood plain

 

10. “________________________” means the elevation of the base flood, including wave height, relative to the datum specified on a county’s flood hazard map.

 

            a. Flood hazard area

            b. Base flood elevation

            c. Flood hazard map

            d. Flood plain

 

11. Prior to the initial installation of a new manufactured home, the ________________ is responsible to determine whether the home site lies wholly or partly within a special flood hazard area as shown on the county’s flood insurance rate map, flood boundary and floodway map, or flood hazard boundary map.

 

            a. Inspector

            b. owner

            c. permit applicant

            d. both b & c

 

Reference page 8 for questions 12-14

 

12. What is the roof snow load for the north area?

 

            a. 20

            b. 30

            c. 40

            d. none of the above

 

13. What is the roof snow load for the south area?

 

            a. 20

            b. 30

            c. 40

            d. none of the above

 

14. What is the roof snow load for the middle area?

 

            a. 20

            b. 30

            c. 40

            d. none of the above

 

 

PART 3280 MANUFACTURED HOME CONSTRUCTION AND SAFETY STANDARDS

 

Reference pages 1-2 for questions 15-20

 

Definitions

 

15. ____________________ means a specific anchoring assembly device designed to transfer home anchoring loads to the ground.

 

            a. Ground Anchor

            b. Diagonal Tie

            c. Anchoring system

            d. none of the above

 

16. ____________________ means a tie intended to resist horizontal or shear forces, but which may resist vertical, uplift, and overturning forces.

 

            a. Ground Anchor

            b. Diagonal Tie

            c. Anchoring system

            d. none of the above

 

 

17. __________________ means a combination of anchoring equipment and anchor assemblies that will, when properly designed and installed, resist the uplift, overturning, and lateral forces on the manufactured home, and on its support and foundation system.

            a. Ground Anchor

            b. Diagonal Tie

            c. Anchoring system

            d. none of the above

 

18. ­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­__________________ means all components of the anchoring and support systems, such as piers, footings, ties, anchoring equipment, anchoring assemblies, or any other equipment, materials, and methods of construction that support and secure the manufactured home to the ground.

 

            a. Anchoring Equipment

            b. Anchor Assembly

            c. Stabilizing Devices

            d. none of the above

 

19._________________________ means any device or other means designed to transfer home anchoring loads to the ground.

 

            a. Anchoring Equipment

            b. Anchor Assembly

            c. Stabilizing Devices

            d. none of the above

 

20. __________________________ means ties, straps, cables, turnbuckles, chains, and other approved components, including tensioning devices that are used to secure a manufactured home to anchor assemblies.

 

            a. Anchoring Equipment

            b. Anchor Assembly

            c. Stabilizing Devices

            d. none of the above

 

Reference pages 7-8 for questions 21-26

 

21. A manufacturer must provide with each new manufactured home, _______________________that are consistent with these Model Installation Standards for the installation of manufactured homes.

 

            a. DAPIA-approved designs

            b. instructions

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

22. The installation instructions must provide protection to residents of the manufactured homes that _____________ the protection provided by these Model Installation Standards and must not take the manufactured home out of compliance with the Federal Manufactured Home Construction and Safety

 

            a. equals

            b. exceeds

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

 

23. When an installer does not provide support and anchorage in accordance with the approved manufacturer's installation instructions, or encounters site (such as areas that are subject to flood damage or high seismic risk) or other conditions that prevent the use of the instructions, the installer must obtain special site-specific instructions from the ____________________for the support and anchorage of the manufactured home.

 

            a. manufacturer

            b. use a design by a registered professional engineer

            c. registered architect

            d. all of the above

 

24. The installation instructions must provide at least one method for temporarily supporting each transportable section of a manufactured home, to prevent structural and other damage to the structure, when those section(s) are temporarily sited at the________________________________________.

 

            a. manufacturer’s facility

            b. retailer’s lot

            c. the home site

            d. all of the above

 

25. An alteration, as defined in § 3282.7 of this chapter, must not affect the ability of the basic manufactured home to comply with the MHCSS and the alteration must not impose additional loads to the manufactured home or its foundation unless the alteration is included in the __________________.

 

            a. manufacturer's DAPIA-approved designs

            b. installation instructions

            c. designed by a registered professional engineer or architect

            d. all of the above

 

26 _____________________ of any equipment that affects the installation of the home made by the manufacturer, retailer or installer prior to completion of the installation by an installer must equal or exceed the protections and requirements of these Model Installation Standards, the MHCSS (24 CFR part 3280) and the Manufactured Home Procedural and Enforcement regulations (24 CFR part 3282).

 

            a.. Additions

            b. Modifications

            c. replacement or removal

            d. all of the above

 

Reference pages 11-16 for questions 27-58

 

Definitions

 

27. The elevation of the base flood, including wave height, relative to the datum specified on a LAHJ’s flood hazard map.

 

            a. Base flood elevation

            b. Base flood

            c. Arid Region

            d. Approved

 

28. When used in connection with any material, appliance or construction, means complying with the requirements of the Department of Housing and Urban Development.

           

            a. Base flood elevation

            b. Base flood

            c. arid Region

            d. approved

 

29. An area subject to 15 inches or less of annual rainfall.

 

            a. Base flood elevation

            b. Base flood

            c. Arid Region

            d. Approved

 

30. The flood having a one percent chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year.

 

            a. Base flood elevation

            b. Base flood

            c. Arid Region

            d. Approved

 

31. A tie intended to resist horizontal or shear forces, but which may resist vertical, uplift, and overturning forces.

 

            a. Comfort cooling certificate

            b. Crossover

            c. Design Approved Primary Inspection Agency

            d. Diagonal tie

 

32. A State or private organization that has been accepted by the Secretary in accordance with the requirements of part 3282, subpart H of this chapter, which evaluates and approves or disapproves manufactured home designs and quality control procedures.

 

            a. Comfort cooling certificate

            b. Crossover

            c. Design Approved Primary Inspection Agency

            d. Diagonal tie

 

33. Utility interconnections in multi-section homes that are located where the sections are joined. Crossover connections include heating and cooling ducts, electrical circuits, and water pipes, drain plumbing, and gas lines.

 

            a. Comfort cooling certificate

            b. Crossover

            c. Design Approved Primary Inspection Agency

            d. Diagonal tie

 

34. The greater of either: (1) the special flood hazard area shown on the flood insurance rate map; or (2) the area subject to flooding during the design flood and shown on a LAHJ’s flood hazard map, or otherwise legally designated.

 

            a. Flood hazard area

            b. Flood hazard map

            c. Footing

            d. Ground anchor

 

35. A specific anchoring assembly device designed to transfer home anchoring loads to the ground.

 

            a. Flood hazard area

            b. Flood hazard map

            c. Footing

            d. Ground anchor

 

36. That portion of the support system that transmits loads directly to the soil.

 

            a. Flood hazard area

            b. Flood hazard map

            c. Footing

            d. Ground anchor

 

37. A map delineating the flood hazard area and adopted by a LAHJ.

 

            a. Flood hazard area

            b. Flood hazard map

            c. Footing

            d. Ground anchor

 

38. Included in a list published by a nationally recognized testing laboratory, inspection agency, or other organization concerned with product evaluation that maintains periodic inspection of production of listed equipment or materials, and whose listing states either that the equipment or material meets nationally recognized standards or has been tested and found suitable for use in a specified manner.

 

            a. Listed

            b. Labeled

            c. Installation standards

            d. Installation instructions

 

39. A label, symbol, or other identifying mark of a nationally recognized testing laboratory, inspection agency, or other organization concerned with product evaluation that maintains periodic inspection of production of labeled equipment or materials, and by whose labeling is indicated compliance with nationally recognized standards or tests to determine suitable usage in a specified manner.

 

            a. Listed

            b. Labeled

            c. Installation standards

            d. Installation instructions

 

40. Reasonable specifications for the installation of a new manufactured home, at the place of occupancy, to ensure proper siting, the joining of all sections of the home, and the installation of stabilization, support, or anchoring systems.

 

            a. Listed

            b. Labeled

            c. Installation standards

            d. Installation instructions

 

41. DAPIA-approved instructions provided by the home manufacturer that accompany each new manufactured home and detail the home manufacturer requirements for support and anchoring systems, and other work completed at the installation site to comply with these Model Installation Standards and the Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards in 24 CFR part 3280.

 

            a. Listed

            b. Labeled

            c. Installation standards

            d. Installation instructions

 

42. The State, city, county, city and county, municipality, utility, or organization that has local responsibilities that must be complied with during the installation of a manufactured home.

 

            a. LAHJ

            b. Lowest floor

            c. Manufactured Home

            d. Manufactured home gas supply connector

 

43. A listed connector designed for connecting the manufactured home to the gas supply source.

 

            a. LAHJ

            b. Lowest floor

            c. Manufactured Home

            d. Manufactured home gas supply connector

 

44. A structure, transportable in one or more sections, which in the traveling mode is 8 body feet or more in width or 40 body feet or more in length or which when erected on site is 320 or more square feet, and which is built on a permanent chassis and designed to be used as a dwelling with or without a permanent foundation when connected to the required utilities, and includes the plumbing, heating, air-conditioning, and electrical systems contained in the structure.

 

            a. LAHJ

            b. Lowest floor

            c. Manufactured Home

            d. Manufactured home gas supply connector

 

45. The floor of the lowest enclosed area of a manufactured home. An unfinished or flood resistant enclosure, used solely for vehicle parking, home access or limited storage, must not be considered the lowest floor, provided the enclosed area is not constructed so as to render the home in violation of the flood-related provisions of this standard.

 

            a. LAHJ

            b. Lowest floor

            c. Manufactured Home

            d. Manufactured home gas supply connector

 

46. Any freestanding roof or shade structure, installed or erected above a manufactured home or any portion thereof.

           

            a. Ramada

            b. Pier

            c. Model installation Standards

            d. Manufactured home site

 

47. That portion of the support system between the footing and the manufactured home, exclusive of shims. Types of piers include, but are not limited to: (1) manufactured steel stands; (2) pressure-treated wood; (3) manufactured concrete stands; (4) concrete blocks; and (5) portions of foundation walls.

 

            a. Ramada

            b. Pier

            c. Model installation Standards

            d. Manufactured home site

 

48. The installation standards established in part 3285 of this chapter pursuant to section 605 of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 5404.

 

            a. Ramada

            b. Pier

            c. Model installation Standards

            d. Manufactured home site

 

49. A designated parcel of land designed for the installation of one manufactured home for the exclusive use of the occupants of the home.

 

            a. Ramada

            b. Pier

            c. Model installation Standards

            d. Manufactured home site

 

50. Each of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the Virgin Islands, the Canal Zone, and American Samoa.

 

            a. State

            b. Support system

            c. tie

            d. Ultimate load

 

51. Pilings, columns, footings, piers, foundation walls, shims, and any combination thereof that, when properly installed, support the manufactured home.

 

            a. State

            b. Support system

            c. tie

            d. Ultimate load

 

52. Straps, cable, or securing devices used to connect the manufactured home to anchoring assemblies.

 

            a. State

            b. Support system

            c. tie

            d. Ultimate load

 

53. The absolute maximum magnitude of load that a component or system can sustain, limited only by failure.

 

            a. State

            b. Support system

            c. tie

            d. Ultimate load

 

54. The maximum recommended load that may be exerted on a component or system determined by dividing the ultimate load of a component or system by an appropriate

 

            a. Working load

            b. Wind Zone

            c. Vertical tie

            d. utility connection

 

55. The areas designated on the Basic Wind Zone Map, as further defined in § 3280.305(c) of the Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards in this chapter that delineate the wind design load requirements as determined by the fastest mile wind speed (mph) within each area.

 

            a. Working load

            b. Wind Zone

            c. Vertical tie

            d. utility connection

 

56. A tie intended to resist uplifting and overturning forces.

 

            a. Working load

            b. Wind Zone

            c. Vertical tie

            d. utility connection

 

57. The connection of the manufactured home to utilities that include, but are not limited to, electricity, water, sewer, gas, or fuel oil.

 

            a. Working load

            b. Wind Zone

            c. Vertical tie

            d. utility connection

 

58. The manufactured home should be leveled before completion of the installation or the contractor can leave the leveling for the home owners to complete.        

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

SUBPART B – PRE-INSTALLATION CONSIDERATIONS

 

Reference pages 16-18 for questions 59-65

 

59. Fire separation distances must be in accordance with the requirements of Chapter 6 of NFPA 501A, 2003 Edition. The installation instructions could clearly indicate this requirement in a separate section and might caution installers to take into account any local requirements on fire separation.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

60. The provisions of this section apply to the initial installation of new manufactured homes located wholly or partly within a flood hazard area.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

61. Prior to the initial installation of a new manufactured home, the buyer is responsible to determine whether the manufactured home site lies wholly or partly within a special flood hazard area as shown on the LAHJ’s Flood Insurance Rate Map, Flood Boundary and Floodway Map, or Flood Hazard Boundary Map.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

62. Manufactured homes may be installed in a wind zone that exceeds the design wind loads for which the home has been designed as evidenced by the wind zone indicated on the home's data plate.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

63. Manufactured homes may be located in a roof load zone that exceeds the design roof load for which the home has been designed as evidenced by the roof load zone indicated on the home's data plate. Refer to § 3285.315 for Special Snow Load Conditions.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

64. Manufactured homes may be installed in a thermal zone that exceeds the thermal zone for which the home has been designed as evidenced by the thermal zone indicated on the heating/cooling certificate and insulation zone map.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

65. The manufacturer shall provide the heating/cooling information and insulation zone map on the home's data plate.

           

            a. true

            b. false

 

SUBPART C – SITE PREPARATION

 

Reference pages 19-23   for questions 66-85

 

66. To help prevent settling or sagging, the foundation must be constructed on firm, undisturbed soil or fill compacted to at least ____ percent of its maximum relative density.

 

            a. 70

            b, 80

            c. 90

            d. 100

 

67. All organic material such as grass, roots, twigs, and wood scraps may be removed in areas where footings are to be placed. After removal of organic material, the home site should be graded or otherwise prepared to ensure adequate drainage in accordance with § 3285.203.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

68. The soil classification and bearing capacity of the soil must be determined before the foundation is constructed and anchored.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

69. The soil classification and bearing capacity must be determined by the following method.

 

            a. Soil tests that are in accordance with generally accepted engineering practice

            b. Soil records of the applicable LAHJ

            c. A pocket penetrometer

            d. all of the above

 

70. Soil classifications and bearing capacities for “hard pan” (psf) would be?

           

            a. 2000

            b. 4000

            c. 1500

            d. 1000

 

71. Soil classifications and bearing capacities for “course gravel/cobbles” (psf) would be?

 

            a. 2000

            b. 4000

            c. 1500

            d. 1000

 

72. Soil classifications and bearing capacities for “firm to stiff clays and silts” (psf) would be?

 

            a. 2000

            b. 4000

            c. 1500

            d. 1000

 

73. Soil classifications and bearing capacities for “medium dense course sands” (psf) would be?

 

            a. 2000

            b. 4000

            c. 1500

            d. 1000

 

74. If the soil appears to be composed of peat, organic clays, or uncompacted fill, or appears to have unusual conditions, a __________________must determine the soil classification and maximum allowable soil bearing capacity.

 

            a. a registered professional geologist

            b. registered professional engineer

            c. registered architect

            d. all of the above

 

75. Drainage must be provided to direct surface water away from the home and to prevent water build-up under the home.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

76. The home site should be graded as shown in Figure 3285.203, or other methods, such as a drain tile and automatic sump pump system, may be provided to remove any water that may collect under the home.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

77. All drainage must be diverted away from the home and must slope a minimum of one-half inch per foot away from the foundation for the first 5 feet.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

78. Where property lines, walls, slopes, or other physical conditions prohibit the slope required in question 77, the site should be provided with drains or swales or otherwise graded to possible drain water away from the structure.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

79. The home, where sited, may be protected from surface runoff from the surrounding area.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

80. Manufacturers should specify in their installation instructions whether the home is designed for the installation of gutters and downspouts. When the home is so designed and gutters and downspouts are installed, the runoff must be directed under the home.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

81. If the space under the home is to be enclosed withskirting or other materials, a vapor retarder must be installed to cover the ground under the home, even if the home is installed in an arid region with dry soil conditions.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

82. Vapor retarder material. A minimum of _____ mil polyethylene sheeting or its equivalent must be used.

 

            a. 3

            b. 4

            c. 6

            d. all of the above

 

83. The entire area under the home must be covered with the vapor retarder as noted in 3285.204(a) except for areas under open porches, decks, and recessed entries. Joints in the vapor retarder must be overlapped at least ____ inches and sealed.

 

            a. 3

            b. 4

            c. 6

            d. none of the above

 

84. The vapor retarder may be placed_________________________________.

 

            a. directly beneath footings

            b otherwise installed around or over footings placed at grade

            c. around anchors or other obstructions

            d. all of the above

 

85. Voids or tears in the vapor retarder that are larger than 4” should be repaired.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

SUBPART D – FOUNDATIONS

 

Reference pages 23-56   for questions 86-146

 

 

86. Foundations for manufactured home installations must be designed and constructed in accordance with this subpart and must be based on ______________________the home was designed to withstand as shown on the home’s data plate.

 

            a. site conditions

            b. home design features

            c. the loads

            d. all of the above

 

87. Foundation systems that ____________________ may be used when verified by engineering data and designed in accordance with § 3285.301(d), consistent with the design loads of the MHCSS.

 

            a. are not pier

            b. footing type configurations

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

 

88. Details, plans, and test data must be designed and certified by a ____________________ and must not take the home out of compliance with the MHCSS.

 

            a. registered professional engineer

            b. registered architect

            c. both a & b

            d. none of the above

 

89. Alternative foundation systems. Alternative foundation systems or designs are permitted in accordance with either of the following: (Page 23)

           

a. Systems or designs must be manufactured and installed in accordance with their 24 listings by a nationally recognized testing agency based on a nationally recognized testing protocol; or

b. System designs must be prepared by a registered professional engineer or a registered architect in accordance with acceptable engineering practice.

            c. both a & b

            d. none of the above

 

90. In flood hazard areas, the foundation, anchoring s and support systems must be capable of resisting loads associated with design flood and wind events, and homes must be installed on foundation supports that are designed and anchored to prevent floatation, collapse or lateral movement of the structure.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

91. Manufacturer’s installation instructions must indicate whether:

 

A. The foundation specifications have been designed and installed for flood resistant considerations, and, if so, the conditions of applicability for velocities, depths, or wave action.

            b. The foundation specifications are not designed to address flood loads.

            c. both a & b

            d. none of the above

 

92. The piers used must be capable of transmitting the vertical __________ loads to the footings or foundation.

           

            a. live

            b. dead

            c. both a & b

            d. none of the above

 

93. Acceptable piers — materials specification. Piers are permitted to be _______________. (Page 24)

 

            a. concrete blocks

            b. pressure-treated wood with a water borne preservative

            c. adjustable metal or concrete piers

            d. all of the above

 

94. Manufactured piers must be ____________________for the required vertical load capacity, and, where required by design, for the appropriate horizontal load capacity.

 

            a. listed

            b. labeled

            c. both a & b

            d. none of the above

 

95. The load bearing capacity for each pier must be designed to include consideration for the ______________________. (Page 25)

 

            a. dimensions of the home

            b. the design dead and live loads

            c. the spacing of the piers

            d. all of the above

 

96. Pier Configuration- Load-bearing (not decorative) concrete blocks must have nominal dimensions of at least 8 inches × 8 inches × 16 inches. (Page 30)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

97. Pier Configuration- The concrete blocks must be stacked with their hollow cells aligned horizontally.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

98. Pier Configuration- When piers are constructed of blocks stacked side by side, each layer must be at right angles to the preceding one, as shown in Figure B of §3285.306

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

99. Pier Configuration- Caps must be solid concrete or masonry at least 4 inches in nominal thickness, or hardboard lumber at least 2 inches in thickness; or be corrosion-protected minimum one-half inch thick steel; or be of other listed materials.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

100. Pier Configuration- All caps must be of the same length and width as the piers on which they rest.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

101. Pier Configuration- When split caps are used on double-stacked blocks, the caps must be installed with the short dimension across the joint in the blocks above.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

102. Gaps. Any gaps that occur during installation between the main chassis beam and foundation support system must be filled, by using one of the following methods: (Page 30)

 

a. Nominal 4 inch × 6 inch x 1 inch shims are permitted to be used to level the home and fill any gaps between the base of the main chassis beam and the top of the pier cap

b. Shims must be used in pairs as shown in Figures A and B of §3285.306 and must be driven   in tightly so that they do not occupy more than one inch of vertical height

            c. Hardwood plates no thicker than 2 inches are used to fill in remaining vertical gaps

            d. all of the above

 

103. Manufactured pier heights. Manufactured pier heights must be selected so that the adjustable risers do not extend more than ____ inches when finally positioned.

 

            a. 1

            b. 2

            c. 3

            d. 6

 

104. A minimum clearance of ___ inches must be maintained between the lowest member of the main frame (I-beam or channel beam) and the grade under all areas of the home. (Page 31)

 

            a. 4

            b. 8

            c. 12

            d. 18

 

105. Frame piers less than _____ inches high are permitted to be constructed of single, open, or closed-cell concrete blocks, 8 inches × 8 inches × 16 inches, when the design capacity of the block is not exceeded.

 

            a. 24

            b. 36

            c. 12

            d. 18

 

106. Using the criteria from question 105- The frame piers must be installed so that the short sides are at right angles to the supported I-beam, as shown in Figure A of this section.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

107. Using the criteria from question 105- The concrete blocks must be stacked with their hollow cells aligned vertically and must be positioned at right angles to the footings.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

108. Using the criteria from question 105- Vertical offsets from the top to the top of the pier must not exceed one-half inch.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

109. Using the criteria from question 105- Mortar is required as specified in the installation instructions and is always required by the registered professional engineer or the registered architect.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

110. Frame piers 36 inches to 67 inches high and corner piers. All frame piers between 36 inches and 67 inches high and all corner piers over three blocks high must be constructed out of double, interlocked concrete blocks as shown in Figure B of this section, when the design capacity of the block is not exceeded. (page 32)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

111. Frame piers 36 inches to 67 inches high and corner piers. Horizontal offsets from the top to the bottom of the pier must not exceed ____ inch.

 

            a. ½

            b. 1

            c. 2

            d. 4

 

112. All piers over 67 inches high. Piers over 67 inches high must be designed by a _____________________________ in accordance with acceptable engineering practice. (Page 33)

 

            a. registered professional engineer

            b. registered architect

            c. both a & b

            d. none of the above

 

113. All piers over 67 inches high. Mortar is required for concrete block piers unless otherwise specified by the design.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

114. Piers required _____________________________ are permitted to be constructed of single open-cell or closed-cell concrete blocks, with nominal dimensions of 8 inches × 8 inches × 16 inches, to a maximum height of 54 inches, as shown in Figure A of this section, when the design capacity of the block is not exceeded. (page 33)

 

            a. at mate-line supports

            b. perimeter piers

            c. piers at exterior wall openings

            d. all of the above

 

115. Piers used for perimeter support must be installed with the short dimension parallel to the perimeter rail.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

116. Manufactured piers must be _______ to the pier manufacturer installation instructions. (Page 34)

 

            a. listed

            b. labeled

            c. installed

            d. all of the above

 

117. The location and spacing of piers depends upon the dimensions of the home, the live and dead loads, the type of construction (single- or multi-section), I-beam size, soil bearing capacity, footing size, and such other factors as the location of doors or other openings.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

118. Piers supporting the frame must be no more than _____ inches from both ends and not more than _____ inches center to center under the main rails.

 

            a. 18, 110

            b. 20, 115

            c. 24, 120

            d. none of the above

 

119. Perimeter pier or other supports must be located as follows: On both sides of side wall exterior doors (such as entry, patio, and sliding glass doors) and any other side wall openings of 48 inches or greater in width, and under load-bearing porch posts, factory installed fireplaces, and wood stoves).

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

120. Perimeter pier or other supports must be located as follows: For roof live loads of ____ psf or greater, a professional engineer or architect must determine the maximum sidewall opening permitted without perimeter pier or other supports.

 

            a. 20

            b. 30

            c. 40

            d. none of the above

 

121. Materials approved for footings must provide equal load-bearing capacity and resistance to decay as required by this section. Footings must be placed on undisturbed soil or fill compacted to ___ percent of maximum relative density. (Page 38)

 

            a. 70

            b. 80

            c. 90

            d. 100

 

122. Acceptable types of footings. (1) Concrete. Footings are to be either: (i) 4-inch nominal precast concrete pads meeting or exceeding ASTM C 90–02, Standard Specification for Load Bearing Concrete Masonry Units, without reinforcement, with at least a 28-day compressive strength of 1,200 pounds per square inch (psi). (Page 41)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

123. Acceptable types of footings. (1) Concrete. 6-inch minimum poured-in-place concrete pads, slabs, or ribbons with at least a 28-day compressive strength of ________ pounds per square inch (psi). Cast-in-place concrete footings may also require reinforcing steel based on acceptable engineering practice, the design loads, and site specific soil conditions.

 

            a. 2000

            b. 2500

            c. 3000

            d. 4000

 

124. Acceptable types of footings. Pressure-treated wood. Pressure-treated wood footings must consist of a minimum of two layers of nominal 2 inch thick pressure-treated wood, a single layer of nominal ¾-inch thick pressure-treated plywood with a maximum size of 16 inches by 16 inches.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

125. Acceptable types of footings. Pressure-treated wood. least two layers of ¾-inch thick pressure-treated plywood for sizes greater than 16 inches by 16 inches. Plywood used for this purpose is to be rated exposure 1 or exterior sheathing in accordance with PS-1-95, Construction and Industrial Plywood. (page 41)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

126. Footings placed in freezing climates must be designed using methods and practices that prevent the effects of frost heave by one of the following methods: (page 42)

 

            a. Conventional footings

            b. monolithic slab systems

            c. Insulated foundations

            d. all of the above

 

127. Using the table (e) on page 43-What is the minimum size footing in inches required for a maximum capacity of 7800 lb and with soil capacity of 1000 psf and a 8” x 16” pier?

 

            a. 24 x 24

            b. 30 x 30

            c. 36 x 36

            d. none of the above

 

128. Using the table (e) on page 43-What is the minimum size footing in inches required for a maximum capacity of 7800 lb and with soil capacity of 1500 psf and a 8” x 16” pier?

 

            a. 24 x 24

            b. 30 x 30

            c. 36 x 36

            d. none of the above

 

129. Using the table (e) on page 43-What is the minimum size footing in inches required for a maximum capacity of 7800 lb and with soil capacity of 4000 psf and a 16” x 16” pier?

 

            a. 24 x 24

            b. 30 x 30

            c. 36 x 36

            d. none of the above 

 

130. What is the minimum thickness for a unreinforced cast-in-place footing for question 127 above?

 

            a. 8”

            b. 10”

            c. 12”

            d. none of the above

 

131. What is the minimum thickness for a unreinforced cast-in-place footing for question 128 above?

 

            a. 8”

            b. 10”

            c. 12”

            d. none of the above

 

132. What is the minimum thickness for a unreinforced cast-in-place footing for question 129 above?

 

            a. 8”

            b. 10”

            c. 12”

            d. none of the above

 

133. Support systems that combine both load-bearing capacity and uplift resistance must also be sized and designed for all applicable wind loads. (Page 45)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

134. Special snow load conditions. In general, foundations for homes designed for and located in areas with roof live loads greater than ____ psf must be designed by the manufacturer for the special snow load conditions in accordance with acceptable engineering practice. (Page 45)

 

            a. 20

            b. 30

            c. 40

            d. none of the above

 

135. Where site or other conditions prohibit the use of the____________________, a registered professional engineer or registered architect must design the foundation for the special snow load conditions.

 

            a. code book

            b. footing manual

            c. manufacturer’s instructions

            d. none of the above

 

136. Ramadas may be used in areas with roof live loads greater than ___ psf. Ramadas are to be self- supporting except that any connection to the home must be for weatherproofing only.

 

            a. 20

            b. 30

            c. 40

            d. none of the above

 

137. Anchoring instructions. After blocking, the manufactured home must be secured against the wind by use of anchor assembly type installations or by connecting the home to the alternative foundation system. Leveling is required after the anchoring process. (Page 46)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

138. All anchoring and foundation systems must be capable of _______the loads that the home was designed to withstand required by part 3280, subpart D of this chapter, that the home was designed to withstand as shown on the home’s data plate.

 

            a. holding down

            b. meeting

            c. turning over

            d. none of the above

 

139. The installation instructions are to include at least the following information and details for anchor assembly type installations: (Page 46)

 

            a. The maximum spacing for installing diagonal ties and any required vertical ties or straps to ground anchors

b.  The minimum and maximum angles or dimensions for installing diagonal ties or straps to ground anchors and the main chassis members of the manufactured home

c.  Requirements for connecting the diagonal ties to the main chassis members of the manufactured home. If the diagonal ties are attached to the bottom flange of the main chassis beam, the frame must be designed to prevent rotation of the beam

            d. all of the above

 

140. The installation instructions are to include at least the following information and details for anchor assembly type installations:

 

            a. Requirements for longitudinal and mating wall tie downs and anchorage

b.  The method of strap attachment to the main chassis member and ground anchor including provisions for swivel-type connections

            c.  The methods for protecting vertical and diagonal strapping at sharp corners by use of radius clips or other means

            d. all of the above

 

141. Number and location of ground anchors. (1) Ground anchor and anchor strap spacing must be:

 

            a. No greater than the spacing shown in Tables 1 thru 3 of this section and Figures A and B in    this section

b. Designed by a registered engineer or architect in accordance with acceptable engineering practice and the requirements of the MHCSS

            c. all of the above

            d. none of the above

 

142. Longitudinal anchoring. Manufactured homes must be stabilized against wind in the longitudinal direction in all Wind Zones. Manufactured homes located in _______ must have longitudinal ground anchors installed on the ends of the manufactured home transportable section(s) or be provided with alternative systems that are capable of resisting wind forces in the longitudinal direction. (page 48)

 

            a. wind zone 1

            b. wind zone 2

            c. wind zone 3

            d. only b & c

 

143. A ________________________ must design alternative longitudinal anchoring methods in accordance with acceptable engineering practice.

 

            a. licensed builder

            b. licensed manufactured home installer

            c. registered professional engineer or registered architect

            d. all of the above

 

144. If sidewall, over-the roof, mate-line, or shear wall straps are installed on the home, they must be connected to an _________________. (Page 55)

 

            a. footing

            b. pier

            c. foundation

            d. anchoring assembly

 

145. Flood hazard areas. In flood hazard areas, the piers, anchoring, and support systems must be capable of resisting all loads associated with design___________________________. (Page 56)

 

            a. flood and wind events

            b. combined flood and wind events

            c. both a & b

            d. none of the above

 

146. Supplemental instructions for optional equipment or features must be approved by the _______ as not taking the home out of conformance with the requirements of this part or part 3280 of this chapter and included with the manufacturer installation instructions.

 

            a. department

            b. local inspector

            c. DAPIA

            d. none of the above

 

SUBPART F – OPTIONAL FEATURES (page 56)

 

147. Comfort cooling systems. When not provided and installed by the home manufacturer, comfort cooling systems must be installed according to the ___________________________. (Page 56)

 

            a. appliance manufacturer’s installation instructions

            b. registered professional engineer

            c. registered architect

            d. all of the above

 

148. The BTU/hr rated capacity of the site-installed air conditioning equipment must not exceed the air distribution system’s rated BTU/hr capacity as shown on the home’s compliance certificate.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

149. Circuit rating. If a manufactured home is factory provided with an exterior outlet to energize heating and/or air conditioning equipment, the branch circuit rating on the tag adjacent to this outlet must be less than or equal to the minimum circuit amperage identified on the equipment rating plate.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

150. Fireplace and wood-stove chimneys and air inlets must be site approved by the inspector for use with manufactured homes and must be installed in accordance with their listings. (Page 58)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

151. Flood hazard areas. Appliances installed on the manufactured home site must be _____________.

 

            a. anchored

            b. elevated to

            c. above the same elevation as the lowest elevation of the lowest floor of the home

            d. all of the above

 

152. Appliance air inlets and exhausts must be located at or above the same elevation as the lowest elevation of the lowest floor of the home.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

153. The dryer vents must exhaust to the exterior of the home and terminate inside the perimeter skirting installed around it.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

154. All wood skirting within ___ inches of the ground must be pressure treated in accordance with AWPA Standard U1 for Use Category 4A, Ground Anchor Contact Applications or be naturally resistant to decay and termite infestations. (Page 60)

 

            a. 4

            b. 6

            c. 8

            d. 12

 

155. A crawlspace with skirting must be provided with ventilation openings. The minimum net area of ventilation openings must not be less than one square foot (ft2) for every ______ square feet (ft2) of the home’s floor area.

 

            a. 100

            b. 150 

            c. 200

            d. 300

 

156. The total area of ventilation openings may be reduced to one square foot (ft2) for every 1,500 square feet (ft2) of the home’s floor area where a uniform __-mil polyethylene sheet material or other acceptable vapor retarder is installed according to § 3285.204 on the ground surface beneath the entire floor area of the home.

 

            a. 3

            b. 4

            c. 5

            d. none of the above

 

157. Crawlspace ventilation openings must be placed as high as practicable above the ground.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

158. Crawlspace ventilation openings must be located on at least four sides to provide cross ventilation.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

159. Crawlspace access opening(s) not less than __ inches in width and __ inches in height and not

less than three square feet (ft2) in area must be provided and must be located so that any utility

connections located under the home are accessible.

 

            a. 18, 22

            b. 16, 24

            c. 18, 24

            d. all of the above

 

160. Dryer vents, air conditioning condensation drains, and combustion air inlets inside the crawlspace must pass through the skirting to the outside. (Page 60)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

161. Home manufacturers may provide specific installation instructions for the proper field assembly of manufacturer-supplied and shipped loose ducts, plumbing, and fuel supply system parts that are necessary to join all sections of the home and are designed to be located underneath the home.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

162. When the local water supply pressure exceeds ___ psi to the manufactured home, a pressure-reducing valve must be installed. (Page 61)

 

            a. 60

            b. 70

            c. 80

            d. none of the above

 

163. A ___________________ shutoff valve must be installed between the water supply and the inlet.

 

            a. identified

            b. accessible

            c. both a & b

            d. none of the above

 

164. The water riser for the shutoff valve connection must be located ___________ to the home.

 

            a. underneath

            b. adjacent

            c. above

            d. both a & b

 

165. Freezing protection. Only pipe heating cable ______________is permitted to be used, and it must be installed in accordance with the cable manufacturer installation instructions. (Page 62)

 

            a. listed for manufactured home use

            b. approved by an engineer

            c. approved by a architect

            d. all of the above

 

166. The water system must be inspected and tested for leaks after completion at the site. The water heater must be disconnected when using an air-only test.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

167. Drainage system. Drain lines must not slope less than ___ inch per foot unless otherwise noted on the schematic diagram, as shown in Figure 1 to § 3285.604. (Page 65)

 

            a. 1/8

            b. ¼

            c. ½

            d. all of the above

 

168. Drainage system. slope of one-eight inch per foot may be permitted when a ________ is installed at the upper end of the run. (page 63)

 

            a. vent

            b. clean out

            c. both a & b

            d. none of the above

 

169. The gas piping system in the home is designed for a pressure that is at least ___ inches of water column [5.8 oz./in2 or 0.36 psi] and not more than ____ inches of water column [8 oz./in2 or 0.5 psi].

 

            a. 5, 10

            b. 8, 16

            c. 10, 14

            d. none of the above

 

170. Gas piping systems. Tools must not be required to connect or remove the flexible connector quick disconnect.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

171. Ductwork connections. Galvanized metal straps or ______________ listed to UL 181 A or UL 181 B must be used around the duct collar and secured tightly to make all connections.

           

            a. tape

            b. mastics

            c. duct tape

            d. both a & b

 

172. Ductwork connections. If metal straps are used, they must be secured with galvanized sheet metal screws. Metal ducts must be fastened to the collar with a minimum of ______galvanized sheet metal screws equally spaced around the collar.

 

            a. 2

            b. 3

            c. 4

            d. all of the above

 

173.  Ductwork connections The duct must be suspended or supported above the ground by straps or other means that are spaced at a maximum distance not to exceed _______ or as otherwise permitted by the installation instructions. (Page 65)

 

            a. 3

            b. 4

            c. 5

            d. all of the above

 

174. Lights and fixtures. Grounding.  All the exterior lighting fixtures and ceiling fans installed per 67 § 3285.702(a) must be grounded by a fixture-grounding device or by a fixture-grounding wire. (Page 67)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

175. Exterior lights. (1) The junction box covers must be removed and wire-to-wire connections must be made using listed wire connectors.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

176. Exterior lights. The lighting fixture may be caulked around its base to ensure a watertight seal to the sidewall.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

177. Ceiling fans. (1) Ceiling-suspended (paddle) fans must be connected to a junction box listed for ceiling fan application and installed with the trailing edges of the blades at least _____ above the finished floor. (Page 68)

 

            a. 6’ 2”

            b. 6’ 4”

            c. 7’

            d. none of the above

 

178.  Electrical. The installation instructions are to indicate that each manufactured home must be subjected to the following tests: (page 69)

 

            a. An electrical continuity test to ensure that metallic parts are effectively bonded.

b. Operational tests of all devices and utilization equipment except water heaters, electric ranges, electric furnaces, dishwashers, clothes washers/dryers, and portable appliances to demonstrate that they are connected and in working order.

c. For electrical equipment installed or completed during installation, electrical polarity checks must be completed to determine that connections have been made properly. Visual verification is an acceptable electrical polarity check.

            d. all of the above

 

SUBPART I – EXTERIOR AND INTERIOR CLOSE UP (page 70)

 

179. Exterior close-up strips/trim may be fastened securely and sealed with exterior sealant.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

180. Joints and seams. All joints and seams in exterior wall coverings that were disturbed during location of the home must be made weatherproof.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

181. Prior to installing the siding, the optional polyethylene sheeting covering exterior walls for transit could be completely removed.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

182. The home manufacturer must provide materials and designs for mate-line gaskets or other methods designed to resist the entry of ________________ at all mate-line locations exposed to the exterior.

 

            a. air, water & water vapor

            b  insects

            c. rodents

            d. all of the above

 

183. At a minimum, shipped-loose wall paneling necessary for the joining of all sections of the home must be installed by using polyvinyl acetate (PVA) adhesive on all framing members and fastened with minimum one-inch long staples or nails at ___ inches on center panel edges and ____ inches on center in the field. (Page 72)

 

            a. 4, 8

            b. 5, 10

            c. 6, 12

            d. none of the above

 

 

SUBPART J –OPTIONAL INFORMATION FOR INSTALLATION INSTRUCTIONS (page 73)

 

184. Issuance of permits. All necessary LAHJ fees should be paid and permits should be obtained, which may include verification that LAHJ requirements regarding encroachments in streets, yards, and courts are obeyed and that permissible setback and fire separation distances from property lines and public roads are met. (Page 75)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

185. Alterations. After to making any alteration to a home or its installation, contact the LAHJ to determine if plan approval and permits are required.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

186.  Installation of on-site structures. Each accessory building and structure is designed to support all of its own live and dead loads, unless the structure, including any attached garage, carport, deck, and porch, is to be attached to the manufactured home and is otherwise____________________.

 

            a. included in the installation instructions

            b. designed by a registered professional engineer

            c. registered architect

            d. all of the above

 

187. Utility system connections. It is required that the manufacturer’s installation instructions suggest that: The LAHJ be consulted before connecting the manufactured home to any utilities, and only qualified personnel familiar with local requirements be permitted to make utility site connections and conduct tests. (Page 76)

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

188. Drainage system. The main drain line be connected to the site’s sewer hookup, using

a __________________________.

 

            a. elastomeric coupler

            b.other methods acceptable to the LAHJ

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

 

189. Orifices and regulators. Before making any connections to the site supply, the outlet orifices of all gas-burning appliances be checked to ensure they are correctly set up for the type of gas to be supplied.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

190. Gas appliance startup procedures. The LAHJ should be consulted concerning the following gas appliance startup procedures: (Page 77)

 

a. One at a time, opening equipment shutoff valves, lighting pilot lights when provided, and adjusting burners and spark igniters for automatic ignition systems in accordance with each appliance manufacturer instructions.

            b. Checking the operation of the furnace and water heater thermostats.

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

 

191. Tank installation requirements. In flood hazard areas, the oil storage tank should be __________________________or above the design flood elevation, or anchored and designed to prevent flotation, collapse, or permanent lateral movement during the design flood.

 

            a. anchored

            b. elevated to

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

 

192.     Leak test procedure. Before the system is operated, it should be checked for leaks in the ___________ in accordance with NFPA 31, Standard for the Installation of Oil Burning Equipment, 2001or the requirements of the LAHJ, whichever is more stringent.

 

            a. tank

            b.supply piping

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5 Licensing questions 193-267

 

Subchapter I — General Requirements

Comm 5.01 Application. (1) Application for a license,

certification or registration or a license, certification or registration

examination covered under this chapter shall be submitted on

a form prescribed by the department.

Note: Applications and related forms for licenses, certifications or registrations

covered under subchapters II to VII and IX of this chapter are available from the Division

of Safety and Buildings at P.O. Box 7082, Madison, WI 53707−7082, or at telephone

608/261−8500 and 608/264−8777 (TTY), or at the Safety and Buildings’ Web

site at commerce.wi.gov/SB/. Applications for certifications or registrations covered

under subchapter VIII of this chapter are available from the Division of Environmental

and Regulatory Services at P.O. Box 7837, Madison, WI 53707−7837, or at telephone

608/266−7874 and 608/264−8777 (TTY), or at the Web sites for petroleum

programs and PECFA at commerce.wi.gov.

(2) An application for a license, certification or registration

which either requires or recognizes the attendance at or completion

of educational courses as a qualification for the license, certification

or registration shall be accompanied by such evidence,

including but not limited to transcripts, that verifies fulfillment of

the prerequisite.

(3) Pursuant to s. 101.02 (20) (b) and (21) (b), Stats., the

department may not issue or renew any license, certification or

registration under this chapter unless the applicant for the license,

certification or registration includes his or her social security

number, or in the case of a license, certification or registration for

a business, the applicant includes the federal employer identification

number. The department shall consider the failure by the

applicant to provide a social security number or a federal

employer identification number as an incomplete application and

shall not process the application further until the appropriate number

is provided.

(4) A business having multiple locations covered under one

federal employer identification number applying for any of the

following licenses, certifications or registrations need not obtain

a separate license, certification or registration for each location:

(a) Dwelling contractor financial responsibility.

(b) Electrical contractor.

(c) UDC inspection agency.

(d) HVAC contractor.

(e) PECFA consulting firm.

(f) Tank specialty firm

 

193. Application for a license, certification or registration or a license, certification or registration examination covered under this chapter shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the _______.

 

            a. contractor

            b. supplier

            c. department

            d. none of the above

 

194. A business having multiple locations covered under one federal employer identification number applying for any of the following licenses, certifications or registrations must always obtain a separate license, certification or registration for each location.

 

            a. true

            b. false

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.02 Fees. (1) (a) Fees required for the various

licenses, certifications or registrations and their processing under

this chapter shall be determined in accordance with Table 5.02,

except as provided in par. (b).

(b) 1. Pursuant to s. 145.05, Stats., a person who holds a master

plumber license, master plumber−restricted license, journeyman

plumber license or journeyman plumber−restricted license and

who is employed by a city of the first, second or third class as a

plumbing inspector is not required to submit a license fee in order

to renew his or her license.

2. A person who applies to renew his or her master plumber

license, master plumber−restricted license, journeyman plumber

license or journeyman plumber−restricted license without the

license fee as permitted under subd. 1. shall provide evidence that

he or she is a plumbing inspector for a first, second or third class

city with the application for renewal.

Note: The exemption of not having to pay a license fee does not relieve an individual

of fulfilling all other obligations or responsibilities to renew the license such as

continuing education requirements.

(2) Fees required under this chapter for the various licenses,

certifications or registrations or their processing examinations

shall not be refundable.

 

195. Fees required under this chapter for the various licenses, certifications or registrations or their processing examinations shall always be refundable.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

196. The exemption of not having to pay a license fee does always relieve an individual of fulfilling all other obligations or responsibilities to renew the license such as continuing education requirements.

 

            a. true

            b. false

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.03 Petitions for variance. An individual may

submit a petition for variance to any rule in this chapter in accordance

with ch. Comm 3.

Note: Many of the rules relating to credentials reflect specific statutory requirements;

in such cases the department is not able to grant a petition for variance if it

would supersede a statutory requirement.

History: Cr. Register, October, 1996, No. 490, eff. 11−1−96.

Comm 5.04 Processing times. (1) An application for

a license, certification or registration covered under this chapter

shall be granted or denied by the department within 21 calendar

days after the department receives all of the application materials

necessary to obtain the license, certification or registration.

Note: Pursuant to s. 227.116, Stats., the failure by the department to make a determination

on an application results in the department having to prepare and file a

report with the permit information center of the department. The failure by the

department to make a determination on an application does not relieve a person from

the obligation to comply with the requirements or qualifications of the license, certification

or registration or to secure the license, certification or registration.

(2) (a) If the license, certification or registration application

information is insufficient, the department shall request additional

information within 21 calendar days of receipt of the application.

(b) If an applicant does not respond to a request by the department

for additional information within 3 months after the date of

the request, the department shall make a determination on the

application based upon the information on hand.

 

197. An individual may submit a petition for variance to any rule in this chapter in accordance with ch. Comm 33.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

198. An application for a license, certification or registration covered under this chapter shall be granted or denied by the department within 30 calendar days after the department receives all of the application materials necessary to obtain the license, certification or registration.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

199. If the license, certification or registration application information is insufficient, the department shall request additional information within 30 calendar days of receipt of the application.

 

            a. true

            b. false

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.05 Mailing. (1) Unless otherwise provided by

law, all orders, notices and other papers may be served by the

department by first class mail at the address on file with the department

(2) A license, certification or registration holder shall be

responsible for notifying the department of any change in mailing

address.

no longer than that specified in Table 5.06.

(2) A license, certification or registration issued under this

chapter shall expire at midnight on the day or date of expiration

of the term specified in Table 5.06.

 

200. A license, certification or registration issued under this chapter may expire at midnight on the day or date of expiration of the term specified in Table 5.06.

 

            a. true

            b. false

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.07 Renewal. (1) (a) Except under s. Comm

5.96, a notice of renewal shall be mailed by the department to a

license, certification or registration holder at least 30 calendar

days prior to the expiration of the license, certification or registration.

(b) Failure to receive a notice for renewal of a license, certification

or registration shall not be considered as an excuse or good

cause for failure to renew a license, certification or registration

prior to the expiration of the license, certification or registration.

(2) (a) Except as provided in par. (b), upon receipt of the

renewal application from the department, a person may apply to

renew his or her license, certification or registration provided an

application, a license, certification or registration fee and evidence

of all renewal obligations, if any, are submitted to the

department prior to the expiration date of the license, certification

or registration.

Note: Qualification obligations for renewal are specified under the appropriate

license, certification or registration category sections.

(b) 1. A person may apply to renew his or her license, certification

or registration in accordance with par. (a) no later than one

term after expiration of the license, certification or registration as

conditions:

a. An application fee as specified in s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02

shall accompany the renewal application.

b. Any continuing education credit obtained after the time

frame specified under s. Comm 5.08 (3) (a), but prior to the one−

term deadline for renewal as specified in Table 5.06, that is needed

to fulfill the renewal obligations shall be documented and filed

with the department on a form prescribed by the department.

Note: The form to document late continuing education credit may be obtained

from the Safety and Buildings Division, P.O. Box 7082, Madison, Wisconsin

53707−7082, telephone 608/261−8500.

2. The submission of a form under subd. 1. b. to the department

shall include a $25.00 processing fee.

(c) A person who files for renewal more than one term after

expiration of his or her license, certification or registration may be

reinstated by filing with the department an administrative fee of

$200.00, an application, and the application fee and the license,

certification or registration fee specified in s. Comm 5.02, Table

5.02. The department may also require demonstration of competence

by various methods including, but not limited to, written or

oral examination, documentation of relevant work experience in

other jurisdictions, or documentation of education or experience

in the field. Any education or examination required by the department

may not be more extensive than the requirements in effect

at the time of the request for reinstatement.

 

201. A person who files for renewal more than one term after expiration of his or her license, certification or registration may be reinstated by filing with the department an administrative fee of $________ .

 

            a. 50

            b. 100

            c. 150

            d. none of the above.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.08 Continuing education. (1) PROGRAM

SPECIFICATIONS. (a) Only courses, programs and seminars

approved in writing by the department shall be used for credit to

fulfill continuing education requirements.

(b) 1. Requests for a course, program or seminar to be recognized

for approval shall be submitted in writing to the department.

2. Requests for approval shall include sufficient information

to determine if the course, program or seminar complies with this

subsection.

3. The department shall review and make a determination on

a request for approval within 21 calendar days of receipt of the

request and information necessary to complete the review.

(c) 1. Thirty minutes of attendance in an approved course, program

or seminar shall be deemed equal to 0.5 hours of acceptable

continuing education.

2. Continuing education credit for attendance in approved

continuing education courses, programs or seminars in other than

30 minute increments shall be rounded down to the next half hour.

(d) Courses, programs and seminars to be considered for

approval towards continuing education credit shall relate to the

skills and knowledge of one or more license, certification or registration

categories.

(e) 1. The department may impose specific conditions in

approving a course, program or seminar for continuing education

credit, including limiting credit to specific license, certification or

registration categories.

2. a. The approval of a course, program or seminar for continuing

education credit shall expire 5 years after the date of

approval.

b. Approval of courses, programs or seminars for continuing

education credit may be renewed. Renewal shall be in accordance

with par. (b).

3. The department may revoke the approval of a course, program

or seminar for continuing education credit for any false

statements, misrepresentation of facts or violation of the conditions

on which the approval was based. The department may not

revoke the approval of a course, program or seminar less than 30

calendar days prior to the course, program or seminar being held.

(f) 1. The individual or organization which had obtained the

course, program or seminar approval shall maintain an attendance

record of those individuals who have attended and completed the

course, program or seminar.

2. The attendance record shall include all of the following:

a. The course name.

b. The course identification number assigned by the department.

c. The date or dates the course was held or completed.

d. The name of each attendee.

e. The name of each license, certification or registration held

by the attendee for which the course applies.

f. The license, certification or registration number assigned

by the department of each attendee.

3. A copy of the attendance record shall be forwarded by the

person or organization which had obtained the course, program or

seminar approval to the department within 14 calendar days after

completion of the course or program.

(2) EVIDENCE OF COMPLIANCE. Each license, certification or

registration holder shall retain evidence of compliance with continuing

education requirements throughout the license, certification

or registration period for which continuing education credit

was required for renewal of the license, certification or registration.

(a) The department shall accept as evidence of compliance

original or copies of documents, certified by the individual or

organization providing the course, program or seminar, indicating

attendance and completion of the continuing education credit.

(b) The department may require a license, certification or registration

holder to submit evidence of compliance for the continuing

education credit which was required to renew the license, certification

or registration.

(3) CONTINUING EDUCATIONAL CYCLE. (a) Except as provided

under s. Comm 5.07 (2) (b), for those license, certification or registration

categories which require continuing educational credit

for renewal, the license, certification or registration holder shall

obtain the necessary amount of continuing educational credit at

least 3 months prior to the expiration date of the license, certification

or registration as specified in Table 5.06.

(b) Except as provided under s. Comm 5.07 (2) (b), the time

period during which a license, certification or registration holder

may obtain continuing education credit to fulfill the renewal

obligations shall commence 3 months prior to the expiration date

of the previous license, certification or registration term.

(c) The attendance of a continuing education course, program

or seminar in order to fulfill late renewal obligations under s.

Comm 5.07 (2) (b) may not be credited toward more than one

renewal cycle for a specific license, certification or registration.

 

202. Only courses, programs and seminars approved in writing by the department shall be used for credit to fulfill continuing education requirements.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

203. certification or registration categories which require continuing educational credit for renewal, the license, certification or registration holder shall obtain the necessary amount of continuing educational credit at least ____ months prior to the expiration date of the license, certification or registration as specified in Table 5.06.

 

            a. 1

            b. 2

            c. 3

            d. 4

 

204. Each license, certification or registration holder is not liable for retaining evidence of compliance for continuing education requirements throughout the license, certification or registration period for which continuing education credit was required for renewal of the license, certification or registration.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

205. The department may not revoke the approval of a course, program or seminar less than ____ calendar days prior to the course, program or seminar being held.

 

            a. 10

            b. 20

            c. 30

            d. 60

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.09 Examinations. (1) For those license, certification

or registration categories which require examination, the

department shall conduct at least 4 license, certification or registration

examinations annually for each license, certification or

registration category at times and locations specified by the

department.

(2) An application and fee for a license, certification or registration

that requires an examination shall be received by the

department at least 30 calendar days prior to the day of the

examination. The department may postpone the applicant’s

appearance to another examination date if any of the following

occur:

(a) The applicant fails to have the application on file with the

department within the required time.

(b) The application information or required qualifications are

incomplete.

(c) The examination center is filled to capacity.

(3) Upon verification of the application and the required qualifications,

the department shall notify an applicant in writing of

the date, time and place of the examination.

(4) (a) An applicant for license, certification or registration

examination shall provide a photo identification or other appropriate

evidence to gain admittance to an examination.

(b) An applicant shall bring to a license, certification or registration

examination all necessary materials as specified by the

department.

(c) 1. Except as provided in subd. 2., an applicant who fails

to appear at a scheduled license, certification or registration

examination without giving notice to the department at least 24

hours before the examination shall be considered to have failed

the examination and shall be required to submit a re−examination

application and examination fee.

2. The department may waive the 24−hour notification

requirement of subd. 1. due to inclement weather, if the applicant

notifies the department the day of the examination.

(5) The examination for a license, certification or registration

shall be based on a job analysis of the knowledge, skills and abilities

associated with the license, certification or registration. The

examination shall include all of the following subject matter:

(a) Regulations and standards governing the work or activities

required or permitted under the license, certification or registration.

(b) Theories, principles, and practices associated with the

activities required or permitted under the license, certification or

registration.

(6) (a) A grade of 70% or greater in each part of a license, certification

or registration examination shall be considered a passing

grade.

(b) 1. Except as provided in subd. 2., an applicant failing a part

of a multi−part license, certification or registration examination

shall be required to retake only those parts failed.

2. An applicant who does not pass all required parts of a multi−

part license, certification or registration examination within

one year after the date of the initial examination shall apply, retake

and pass all parts of the license, certification or registration

examination.

(7) (a) The department shall inform an applicant of the results

of an examination in writing within 21 calendar days from the

examination date.

(b) Upon notification of failing a license, certification or registration

examination, an applicant may request another examination

in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.

(c) 1. An applicant who has successfully passed a license, certification

or registration examination may submit an application

and the license, certification or registration fee as specified under

s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02 for the appropriate license, certification

or registration within 3 months after the date the department had

mailed the results of the examination.

2. Failure to apply for a license, certification or registration

in accordance with subd. 1., shall necessitate the applicant to

apply, retake and pass another license, certification or registration

examination in order to obtain the license, certification or registration.

(8) (a) An applicant may request and make an appointment

with the department to review his or her examination.

(b) An applicant who has failed his or her examination may not

review the examination less than 7 calendar days before the applicant

is scheduled to retake the examination.

(c) The department shall retain license, certification or registration

examinations at least 2 months after the date of the

examination.

 

206. An application and fee for a license, certification or registration that requires an examination shall be received by the department at least __ calendar days prior to the day of the examination.

 

            a. 10

            b. 20

            c. 30

            d. 60

 

207. An applicant who fails to appear at a scheduled license, certification or registration examination without giving notice to the department at least ____ hours before the examination shall be considered to have failed the examination and shall be required to submit a re-examination application and examination fee.

 

            a. 12

            b. 48

            c. 24

            d. 21

 

208. The department shall inform an applicant of the results of an examination in writing within ____ calendar days from the examination date.

 

            a. 7

            b. 48

            c. 24

            d. 21

 

209. An applicant who has failed his or her examination may not review the examination less than ___ calendar days before the applicant is scheduled to retake the examination.

 

            a. 7

            b. 48

            c. 24

            d. 21

 

210. The department shall retain license, certification or registration examinations at least ___ months after the date of the examination.

 

            a. 1

            b. 2

            c. 3

            d. 4

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.10 Denial, suspension and revocation.

(1) Except as provided in sub. (2) pertaining to licenses or registrations

for master plumbers, journeyman plumbers, cross connection

control testers and utility contractors, the department may

deny, suspend or revoke a license, certification or registration

under this chapter in accordance with this subsection.

(a) Reasons. The department may deny, suspend or revoke a

license, certification or registration under this chapter if the

department determines that an applicant or holder of the license,

certification or registration is responsible for any of the following:

1. Fails to meet the qualifications for the license, certification

or registration.

2. Has obtained the license, certification or registration

through fraud or deceit.

3. Has demonstrated negligence or incompetence in fulfilling

the responsibilities or obligations of the license, certification or

registration.

4. Has a conflict of interest in fulfilling the responsibilities or

obligations under the license, certification or registration.

5. Has demonstrated misconduct in fulfilling the responsibilities

or obligations under the license, certification or registration.

6. Has been arrested or convicted for a crime substantially

related to the license, certification or registration.

7. Has a physical or mental impairment which prevents the

applicant or holder from fulfilling the responsibilities or obligations

under the license, certification or registration.

8. Has violated state, federal or local laws or regulations relating

to the conduct of the activities under the license, certification

or registration.

9. Has been certified by the department of revenue under s.

73.0301, Stats., to be liable for taxes.

10. Has been delinquent in making court−ordered payments

relating to the support of a child or former spouse pursuant to s.

101.02 (21) (a), (c) and (d), Stats.

11. Has failed to comply with a subpoena or warrant issued

by the department of workforce development or a county child

support agency relating to paternity or child support proceedings

pursuant to s. 101.02 (21) (a), (c) and (d), Stats.

12. If registered or certified under ss. Comm 5.80 to 5.81, has

performed any of the following:

a. Intentionally shifted costs, for the purpose of making ineligible

costs appear to be eligible.

b. Intentionally billed for activities not undertaken at a specific

cleanup site.

c. Rebated the deductible or structured a claim to provide a

responsible party with a rebate or reimbursement of the deductible.

d. Intentionally submitted invoices or bills containing fraud,

or submitted claims that were incomplete or contained fraud.

e. Conducted unnecessary, ineffective or incomplete remedial

activities or services.

f. Attempted to defraud, including but not limited to false or

double billing of clients for work conducted.

g. Charged a fee that the department determined was excessive,

after written notice from the department that the fee was

excessive and should not have been charged.

h. Failed to maintain required records.

i. Denied the department access to requested records.

j. Failed to submit a required notice or report to the department,

within a required time period.

k. Exhibited a pattern of attempting and failing to complete

remediations of PECFA sites.

(b) Notice of denial, suspension or revocation. Except as provided

under s. 101.654 (4), Stats., relative to a dwelling contractor

financial responsibility certification, and par. (c), a notice of

denial, suspension or revocation shall be sent to the applicant or

the license, certification or registration holder. The notice shall

include all of the following:

1. The basis for the denial, suspension or revocation, including

the facts relied on by the department to make its decision and

a citation of applicable statutes and administrative rules establishing

the legal basis for the decision; and

2. A statement that the applicant or the license, certification

or registration holder may file a request for an administrative hearing.

Note: See the appendix under A5.31 for a reprint of s. 101.654 (4), Stats.

(c) Summary suspension. Under s. 227.51 (3), Stats., the

department may summarily suspend any license, certification or

registration if the department finds that immediate action is necessary

for public health, safety or welfare. The summary suspension

of a license, certification or registration shall remain in effect until

after a final decision is issued following a hearing.

(d) Hearing. 1. The request for an administrative hearing shall

be received by the office of legal counsel of the department no

later than 30 days following the date of mailing of the notice under

par. (b), otherwise, the request for hearing shall be denied by the

department.

Facsimile requests received after 4:30 p.m. are considered filed on the next business

day.

2. Hearings shall comply with the provisions of ch. 227, Stats.

(e) Surrender of license, certification or registration. A person

whose license, certification or registration has been suspended or

revoked shall surrender the license, certification or registration to

the department upon request.

(f) Reinstatement. 1. Suspension. a. A person whose license,

certification or registration has been suspended may apply to have

the license, certification or registration reissued only after the time

set for suspension by the department or hearing examiner has

passed and by complying with the conditions set forth in the suspension

order.

b. The request to the department to have a suspended license,

certification or registration reissued shall be made in writing.

c. The department may require a person whose license, certification

or registration has been suspended to apply for the

license, certification or registration by complying with all of the

requirements for a new applicant, including paying the application

fees and successfully passing an examination.

d. The department may impose conditions on the reissued

license, certification or registration to assure compliance with this

chapter.

2. Revocation. A person whose license, certification or registration

has been revoked may not apply to ever receive such a

license, certification or registration.

(2) Pursuant to s. 145.10, Stats., the department may suspend

or revoke the license or registration of any master plumber, journeyman

plumber, master plumber−restricted, journeyman plumber−

restricted, utility contractor, or cross connection control tester

in accordance with this subsection.

(a) General. The department may suspend or revoke a license

or registration for any of the following reasons:

1. The practice of fraud or deceit in obtaining a license or registration.

2. Negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the practice or

work allowed by the license or registration.

3. Failure to correct an installation for which the license or

registration holder is responsible within the time prescribed by the

department.

Note: Section 145.10 (1) (b), Stats., indicates that the correction of an installation

must take place within 30 days following notification by the department of a violation.

4. Falsified information on an inspection form under s. 145.20

(5), Stats.

(b) Investigations. The department may conduct an investigation

of any alleged violations of this chapter or chs. Comm 82 and

83. If it is determined that no further action is warranted, the

department shall notify the persons affected. If the department

determines that there is probable cause, it shall order a hearing and

notify the persons affected.

(c) Summary suspension. Under s. 227.51 (3), Stats., the

department may summarily suspend any license or registration if

the department finds that immediate action is necessary for public

health, safety or welfare. The summary suspension of a license or

registration shall remain in effect until after a final decision is

issued following a hearing.

(d) Hearings. The hearing for the suspension or revocation of

a license or registration shall be conducted as a contested case

hearing in accordance with ch. 227, Stats., and s. 145.10, Stats.

(e) Findings. The department may make findings and enter its

order on the basis of the facts revealed by its investigation. Any

findings as a result of petition or hearing shall be in writing and

shall be binding unless appealed to the secretary.

1. Suspension. The period for suspension shall be determined

by the hearing examiner or the department. The period for suspension

may not exceed one year. A person whose license or registration

has been suspended may apply to have the license or registration

reinstated by filing a new application and payment of the

appropriate fee specified in s. Comm 5.02.

2. Revocation. The period for revocation shall be determined

by the hearing examiner or the department. The period for revocation

shall not exceed one year. A person whose license or registration

has been revoked shall be eligible for the license or registration

only after the time set for revocation by department order has

passed. A person whose license or registration has been revoked

may apply to have the license or registration reinstated only after

submitting a completed application for license or registration

examination, if required, payment of the examination fee, passing

of the examination and payment of the license or registration fee

specified in s. Comm 5.02.

 

211. Pertaining to licenses or registrations for master plumbers, journeyman plumbers, cross connection control testers and utility contractors, the department may deny, suspend or revoke a license, certification or registration under this chapter in accordance with this subsection.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

212. The department may deny, suspend or revoke a license, certification or registration under this chapter if the department determines that an applicant or holder of the license, certification or registration is responsible for any of the following:

a. Fails to meet the qualifications for the license, certification or registration.

b. Has obtained the license, certification or registration through fraud or deceit.

c. Has demonstrated negligence or incompetence in fulfilling the responsibilities or obligations of the license, certification or registration.

d. all of the above

 

213. The department may deny, suspend or revoke a license, certification or registration under this chapter if the department determines that an applicant or holder of the license, certification or registration is responsible for any of the following:

 

a. Has violated state, federal or local laws or regulations relating to the conduct of the activities under the license, certification or registration.

b. Has been certified by the department of revenue under s. 73.0301, Stats., to be liable for taxes.

c. Has been delinquent in making court−ordered payments relating to the support of a child or former spouse pursuant to s.101.02 (21) (a), (c) and (d), Stats.

d. all of the above

 

214. A person whose license, certification or registration has been suspended or revoked may or should surrender the license, certification or registration to the department upon request.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

215. A person whose license, certification or registration has been revoked may apply again to receive such a license, certification or registration after 5 years.

           

            a. true

            b. false

 

216. The period for suspension shall be determined by the hearing examiner or the department. The period for suspension may not exceed _____ year. A person whose license or registration has been suspended may apply to have the license or registration reinstated by filing a new application and payment of the appropriate fee specified in s. Comm 5.02.

 

            a. 1

            b. 2

            c. 3

            d. 5

 

217. The period for revocation shall be determined by the hearing examiner or the department. The period for revocation shall not exceed ____ year.

 

            a. 1

            b. 2

            c. 3

            d. 5

 

218. The department may suspend or revoke a license or registration for any of the following reasons:

a. The practice of fraud or deceit in obtaining a license or registration.

b. Negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the practice or work allowed by the license or registration.

c. Failure to correct an installation for which the license or registration holder is responsible within the time prescribed by the department.

            d. all of the above.

 

219. The department may make findings and enter its order on the basis of the facts revealed by its investigation. Any findings as a result of petition or hearing shall be by phone and shall be binding unless appealed to the secretary.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

220. The department shall conduct an investigation of any alleged violations of this chapter or chs. Comm 82 and 83. If it is determined that no further action is warranted, the department shall call by phone to notify the persons affected. If the department determines that there is probable cause, it mayl order a hearing and notify the persons affected.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

221. A person whose license or registration has been revoked must apply to have the license or registration reinstated only after passing a new examination, if required, payment of the examination fee, passing of the examination and payment of the license or registration fee according to Comm 5.02.

           

            a. true

            b. false

 

222. The department may require a person whose license, certification or registration has been suspended to apply for the license, certification or registration by complying with all of the requirements for a new applicant, including paying the application fees and successfully passing an examination.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

223. The department may make findings and enter its order on the basis of the facts revealed by its investigation. Any findings as a result of petition or hearing shall be in writing and may be binding unless appealed to the Governor.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

224. The hearing for the suspension or revocation of a license or registration shall be conducted as a contested case hearing in accordance with ch. 227, Stats., and s. 145.10, Stats.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

225. The department shall summarily suspend any license or registration if the department finds that immediate action is necessary for public health, traffic, nuisance laws, safety or welfare, child support, or tax laws.

           

            a. true

            b. false

 

226. The summary suspension of a license or registration shall remain in effect until after a final decision by the Governor is issued following a hearing.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

227. Facsimile requests received after 4:30 p.m. are considered filed on the next business day.

 

            a. true

            b. false

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.31 Dwelling contractor financial responsibility.

(1) GENERAL. Pursuant to s. 101.654 (1) (a), Stats., no person

may obtain a building permit for a one− or 2−family dwelling

unless the person holds a certification issued by the department as

a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or a

dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification,

except as provided under s. 101.654 (1) (b), Stats.

Note: Section 101.654 (1) (b), Stats., exempts an owner of a dwelling who resides

or will reside in the dwelling and who applies for a building permit to perform work

on the dwelling from obtaining a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification.

Note: A dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification will

be issued to an individual who applies using a bond of less than $25,000. The

card issued by the department for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−

restricted certification will read “Financial Responsibility−by a bond under

$25,000 Certification”.

(2) APPLICATION FOR CERTIFICATION. A person applying for a

dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or a

dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification

shall submit all of the following:

(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.

(b) An application fee and a certification fee in accordance

with s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.

(3) QUALIFICATIONS FOR CERTIFICATION. (a) A person applying

for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or

a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification

shall provide evidence that the person complies with the

worker’s compensation requirements, unemployment compensation

requirements and liability or bond insurance requirements as

specified under s. 101.654 (2) and (2m), Stats.

Note: See the appendix for a reprint of the requirements under s. 101.654 (2) and

(2m), Stats.

(b) The person applying for a dwelling contractor financial

responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor financial

responsibility−restricted certification shall be the owner of the

contracting business, a partner in the contracting business applying

on behalf of a partnership, or the chairman of the board or chief

executive officer applying on behalf of the contracting corporation.

(4) RESPONSIBILITIES. (a) A person who holds a dwelling contractor

financial responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor

financial responsibility−restricted certification shall comply

with the responsibilities under s. 101.654 (4), Stats.

Note: See the appendix for a reprint of the requirements under s. 101.654 (4), Stats.

(b) For any construction project that requires a uniform building

permit under s. Comm 20.08, a person who holds a dwelling

contractor financial responsibility certification or dwelling contractor

financial responsibility−restricted certification may not

commence construction until a permit is issued for the construction.

(c) For any construction project that involves installation or

modification of a private onsite wastewater treatment system, a

person who holds a dwelling contractor financial responsibility

certification or dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted

certification may not commence construction until a sanitary

permit is issued for the construction in accordance with s.

Comm 83.21.

(5) RENEWAL. (a) Pursuant to s. 101.654 (3), Stats., a dwelling

contractor financial responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor

financial responsibility−restricted certification shall be

valid for no longer than one year after the date of issuance.

(b) 1. A person may renew his or her dwelling contractor

financial responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor

financial responsibility−restricted certification.

2. A dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification

or a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification

shall be renewed in accordance with s. Comm 5.07

 

228. No person may obtain a building permit for a one− or 2−family dwelling unless the person holds a certification issued by the department as a ____________________________.

 

            a. dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification

            b. dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification

            c. licensed building contractor

            d. both a & b

 

229. Section 101.654 (1) (b), Stats., exempts an owner of a dwelling who resides or might reside in the dwelling and who applies for a building permit to perform work on the dwelling from obtaining a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

230. A dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification will be issued to an individual who applies using a bond of less than $25,000.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

231. A person applying for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or

a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification shall provide evidence that the person complies with the _________________________.

 

            a. worker’s compensation requirements

            b. unemployment compensation requirements

            c. liability or bond insurance requirements

            d. all of the above

            e. only a & b

 

232. For any construction project that requires a uniform building permit under s. Comm 20.08, a person who holds a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification may commence construction until a permit is issued for the construction.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

233. The person applying for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or a dwelling contractor financial responsibility−restricted certification shall be the ­­­_____________.

 

            a. owner of the contracting business

            b. a partner in the contracting business applying on behalf of a partnership

c. the chairman of the board or chief executive officer applying on behalf of the contracting corporation.

d. all of the above

e. only a & b

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.315 Dwelling contractor qualifier. (1) GENERAL.

The purpose of the dwelling contractor qualifier certification

is to provide proof of fulfilling the continuing education

obligations to the issuers of building permits as required under s.

101.654 (1) (a), Stats.

(2) APPLICATION. A person applying for a dwelling contractor

qualifier certification shall submit all of the following:

(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.

(b) An application fee and a certification fee in accordance

with s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.

(c) One of the following:

1. Evidence that the person has completed at least 12 hours

in an approved course in dwelling construction within one year

prior to the date of application. The course shall include instruction

in at least the following subject matter and one or more tests

on at least the following subject matter:

a. Construction laws

b. Construction codes.

c. Construction business practices.

2. a. A statement which may be verified by the department

that the person at any time from April 11 to April 14, 2006 was the

applicant for, was a person eligible to apply for, or was the contact

person for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification

or dwelling contractor financial responsibility − restricted

certification.

b. This subdivision does not apply after September 1, 2009.

c. The eligibility provisions under this subd. 2. a. may be used

only once to obtain a dwelling contractor qualifier certification.

Note: Under the administrative rules applicants for the dwelling contractor financial

responsibility certifications are to be the business owners, partners, chairmen of

the boards and chief executive offices. The Safety and Buildings Division has on file

a record of who held a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification or a

dwelling contractor financial responsibility – restricted certification any time

between April 11, 2006 and April 14, 2006.

(3) RENEWAL. (a) 1. A person may renew his or her certification

as a dwelling contractor qualifier.

2. A dwelling contractor qualifier certification shall be

renewed in accordance with s. Comm 5.07.

(b) 1. The renewal of a certification as a dwelling contractor

qualifier shall be contingent upon the individual obtaining at least

12 hours of acceptable continuing education within the time

period specified in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06, except as provided

in subd. 2.

2. A person who holds a certification as a dwelling contractor

qualifier may apply to the department for waiver of the continuing

education requirements under subd. 1. on the grounds of prolonged

illness or disability or similar circumstances. Each application for

waiver shall be considered individually on its merits by the department.

 

234. The purpose of the dwelling contractor qualifier certification is to provide proof of fulfilling the continuing education obligations to the issuers of ________________.

 

            a. zoning permits

            b. land use permits

            c. a & b

            d. a, b, & e

            e. building permits

 

235. A non-grandfathered person applying for a dwelling contractor qualifier certification shall submit evidence that the person has completed at least ___ hours in an approved course in dwelling construction within one year prior to the date of application.

 

            a. 3

            b. 12

            c. 6     

            d. none of the above

 

236. For a person to be grandfathered as a Qualifier, that person needs a statement which may be verified by the department that the person at any time from April 11 to April 14, 2006 was the applicant for, was a person eligible to apply for, or was the contact person for a dwelling contractor financial responsibility certification.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

237. The renewal of a certification as a dwelling contractor qualifier shall be contingent upon the individual obtaining at least _____ hours of acceptable continuing education within the 2 year time period as specified in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06

 

a. 3

b. 6

c. 9

d. none

e. 12

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

 

Comm 5.323 Manufactured home dealer. (1) GENERAL.

Under s. 101.951 (1), Stats., no person may engage in the

business of selling manufactured homes to a consumer or to the

retail market unless the person holds a license issued by the

department as a licensed manufactured home dealer. A branch

license shall also be obtained for each branch operated by the

licensed manufactured home dealer to sell homes.

(2) APPLICATION FOR LICENSE. A person applying for a

manufactured home dealer license shall submit all of the following:

(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.

(b) An application fee and a license fee in accordance with s.

Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.

(c) A license fee for each branch in accordance with s. Comm

5.02, Table 5.02.

(d) One of the following forms of security:

1. Surety bond. A surety bond shall be filed on form

SBD−10679 and issued by a bonding company licensed by this

state. The surety bond shall be payable for the benefit of any person

sustaining a loss because of an act of the licensee constituting

grounds for the suspension or revocation of a license under s.

101.951 (6), Stats.

2. Financial statement. A financial statement shall be filed on

form SBD−10678 or the equivalent in accordance with generally

accepted accounting principles and be dated not more than 90

days prior to the date of application. A small business, as defined

in s. 227.114 (1), Stats., that does no interim financial reporting

may submit a financial statement from the close of the business’s

most recent fiscal year. Financial statements anticipating some

future event shall not be accepted.

(3) QUALIFICATIONS. (a) Minimum net worth or bond. The

minimum level of net worth or surety bond of an applicant shall

be determined in accordance with Table 5.323−1 for a non−broker

or Table 5.323−2 for a broker. The department shall deny the

license of any applicant who fails to meet the net worth or surety

bond criteria specified in the tables.

(b) Person applying. The person applying for a manufactured

home dealer license shall be the owner of the business, a partner

in the business applying on behalf of a partnership, or the chairperson

of the board or chief executive officer applying on behalf of

the corporation.

(4) Responsibilities. A person who holds a manufactured

home dealer license shall post the license at the main business

office and shall comply with the trade practices, facilities and

records requirements specified in subs. (5) to (9).

(5) ADVERTISING AND SALES REPRESENTATIONS. (a) Truthful.

The use of false, deceptive or misleading advertising or representations

by any licensee to induce the purchase of a manufactured

home is prohibited.

(b) Factual. Any licensee, making a statement of fact to the

public in an advertisement, written statement or representation

concerning the manufactured home offered for sale, the services

provided or any other aspects of business operation, shall, upon

request of the department, furnish evidence of the validity and

accuracy of the statement of fact at the time it was made.

(c) Disclosures required when advertising price. When the

price of a manufactured home is advertised by a licensee, the

advertised price shall include all charges that shall be paid by the

retail purchaser to acquire ownership of the advertised home with

the exception of sales tax, title registration fees, government

required permits, and charges from lenders or other entities.

(d) Name. Advertisements for manufactured home sales shall

include the licensed business name.

(e) New or used. When advertising a manufactured home, a

licensee shall state the model year of the home or whether the

home is a new manufactured home or a used manufactured home.

If the manufactured homes in an advertisement are either all new

or all used, one reference in the advertisement designating that

they are new or used is sufficient.

(f) Expiration terms of sales or promotions. Whenever a sale

or promotion offering gifts, merchandise, equipment, accessories,

service, discounts, price reductions or cash is advertised, the

advertisement shall specifically disclose the expiration terms or

date of the sale or promotion.

(g) Relocations. Whenever a licensee advertises a manufactured

home on a rental lot site that may have to be moved as a condition

of the sale, that fact shall be stated in the advertisement.

Note: See Department of Agricultural, Trade and Consumer Protection rules under

section ATCP 125.02 regarding tie−in sales; separate or discriminatory charges.

(6) PURCHASE CONTRACT. (a) Usage. 1. A licensee shall furnish

retail purchasers with a manufactured home purchase contract

that clearly states that the retail purchaser is making an offer

to purchase a manufactured home. An exact copy of the purchase

contract shall be provided to the retail purchaser at the time the

retail purchaser signs the offer and again after the offer is accepted

by the manufactured home dealer if accepted at a different time

than accepted by the retail purchaser. Any changes in the purchase

contract after signing by the retail purchaser or subsequent to

acceptance by the manufactured home dealer shall be initialed by

all the parties on all copies.

whenever the licensee accepts a down payment, deposit, or title

for a trade−in unit from a prospective retail purchaser.

(b) Contract requirements. A manufactured home purchase

contract shall be completed on form SBD−10807.

(c) Termination of offer to purchase. 1. Unless otherwise specified

in the contract, the offer to purchase is automatically voided

if the licensee fails to accept or reject the offer by the close of the

manufactured home dealer’s next business day.

2. The licensee shall not sell the manufactured home to any

other person until the offer is rejected by the licensee or the offer

is voided in accordance with this subsection, or the retail purchaser

cancels the contract in accordance with par. (d).

3. Any down payment, deposit or title shall be returned to the

prospective retail purchaser within 2 working hours of the time the

offer to purchase is rejected by the licensee. If the prospective

retail purchaser is not present or available during the 2 hour

period, those items shall be returned in person or mailed by the

close of the manufactured home dealer’s next business day.

(d) Cancellation of agreements. 1. The purchase contract shall

clearly state that cancellation of a manufactured home contract

within one business day of acceptance by a manufactured home

dealer may subject the retail purchaser to a penalty of up to 1% of

the cash price of the manufactured home and that cancellation

after the close of the next business day may subject the retail purchaser

to a penalty not to exceed the penalty amount specified in

the contract. Modification of the purchase contract shall not

extend the cancellation period. Documented proof of notification

of cancellation is required regardless of the method of notification.

2. The title and any down payment or deposit which is not

retained by the manufactured home dealer as a penalty in accordance

with subd. 1. shall be returned to the retail purchaser by the

close of the manufactured home dealer’s next business day following

receipt of the retail purchaser’s notice of cancellation.

3. Whenever a manufactured home is sold away from the

licensed place of business, the manufactured home dealer shall

furnish the customer with a written notice of the 3−day consumer

cancellation rights in accordance with s. 423.202, Stats.

(e) Price changes. Any increase in price to a retail purchaser

after the manufactured home dealer has accepted an offer is prohibited

except when the price increase is due to any of the items

in subds. 1. to 3.

1. The addition of new equipment required by local, state or

federal law.

2. Local, state or federal tax changes.

3. The reappraisal of a trade−in unit that has suffered damage

or is missing furnishings, appliances or accessories that were part

of the trade−in unit at the time the purchase contract was executed.

Reappraisal by the licensee shall be limited to an amount equal to

the retail repair costs of the damage incurred, or to the value of furnishings,

appliances or accessories removed.

4. The purchase contract shall include information regarding

possible price increases due to any of the items in subds. 1. to 3.

(f) Warranties. Warranties and disclosures shall be provided

in accordance with s. 101.953, Stats.

Note: See appendix for a reprint of section 101.953, Stats.

(g) Name of prior owner. The purchase contract shall include

the name and address of the current titled owner if the manufactured

home is consigned to or listed by the licensee. The name and

address of the previous owner shall be kept on file at the manufactured

home dealer’s main business office if the manufactured

home is owned and offered for sale by the licensee.

(h) On−site sales. If the manufactured home is displayed for

sale on a rental lot site or if a licensee represents that a manufactured

home may occupy a site in a specified manufactured home

community, the manufactured home dealer shall:

1. Clearly state on the purchase contract whether or not the

manufactured home may have to be moved from the site.

2. Clearly state on the purchase contract that the contract is

voidable by the retail purchaser if the retail purchaser is rejected

by, or the purchaser’s manufactured home is not permitted in, the

manufactured home community.

3. If the manufactured home may remain on site, inform the

prospective retail purchaser in writing prior to the execution of the

contract that a copy of the current manufactured home community

lease and rules may be obtained from the current manufactured

home owner or manufactured home community operator.

(i) Service fees. A licensee shall not assess a retail purchaser

an additional service charge or fee for completing any sales−related

home inspection forms that are required by law or rule.

(j) Waiver. The use of a manufactured home purchase contract

that requires the retail purchaser to waive any claims the retail purchaser

may have for breach of contract by the licensee is prohibited.

(7) CONSIGNMENT AND LISTING AGREEMENTS. (a) Usage and

contents. 1. Form SBD−10808 shall be used whenever a

manufactured home dealer lists or offers to sell a used manufactured

home on consignment.

2. Form SBD−10807 shall be used whenever a manufactured

home dealer sells a listed or consigned used manufactured home.

(b) On−site sales on rental sites. Manufactured homes selling

agreements for units offered for sale on−site on rental sites shall

comply with sub. (6) (h).

(c) Net sales prohibited. Licensees shall not obtain, negotiate,

or attempt to negotiate any manufactured home selling agreement

providing for a stipulated net price to the owner with the excess

over the stipulated net price to be received by the licensee as commission.

(8) DISCLOSURE OF THE CONDITIONS OF THE MANUFACTURED

HOME. (a) Model year designation. Changing the model year of

a manufactured home is prohibited. If no model year is designated,

the year of manufacture applies.

(b) New manufactured home disclosure. The licensee shall, on

the face of the new manufactured home purchase contract, disclose

all manufactured home dealer installed options or accessories

and whether or not the options or accessories are warranted.

(c) Used manufactured home general condition disclosure. 1.

Before the execution of a purchase contract for a used manufactured

home owned by a licensee, the licensee shall inform a prospective

retail purchaser of all significant structural or mechanical

defects or damage on form SBD−10809. If the licensee is unable

to determine whether specific damage or defects exist, that fact

shall be noted on the disclosure form. Disclosure of information

shall include that which the licensee discovers as a result of a reasonably

competent and diligent inspection which shall consist of,

but is not limited to, a walk−around and interior inspection, an

under−home inspection, roof inspection and inspection of the

appliances. A reasonably competent and diligent inspection is not

required to cover every possible technical detail. The licensee is

not required to dismantle any part of the manufactured home during

the inspection process.

2. The seller of a listed or consigned used manufactured home

shall provide a completed form SBD−10809 to the licensee. The

licensee shall provide the completed disclosure statement to the

prospective retail purchaser.

3. Unless otherwise agreed to in the purchase contract, the

inspection disclosures shall not create any warranties, expressed

or implied, or affect warranty coverage provided for in the purchase

contract.

(9) FACILITIES AND RECORDS. (a) Business facilities.

Manufactured home dealers shall provide and maintain business

facilities that comply with all of the following:

1. A main business office that maintains books, records and

files necessary to conduct business. The required business office

may be established within a residence if the office is accessible to

an outside entrance and is used primarily for conducting the

manufactured home business.

2. A display lot within the same block or directly across the

street from the main business office, if a display lot is provided.

3. A repair shop, or a service agreement with a nearby repair

shop, where there are repair tools, repair equipment and personnel

to perform the services provided for in a warranty applicable to a

manufactured home sold by the manufactured home dealer. Any

service agreement shall be on form SBD−10685.

(b) Relocation. A main business office may not be relocated

without notice to the department.

(c) Sign. Manufactured home dealers who carry and display

inventory shall provide an exterior business sign in compliance

with s. 100.18 (5), Stats.

(d) Temporary sales locations. 1. Manufactured home dealers

shall be permitted to display and sell manufactured homes at a

temporary site other than the licensed place of business.

2. A temporary sales location may not be used for longer than

30 days.

3. A consigned, listed or model manufactured home shall not

be considered a temporary sales location.

Note: There may be zoning, building code and permit requirements relating to

business locations that are enforced by local municipalities.

(e) Records kept. The books, records and files required to be

kept and maintained at the main business office by a manufactured

home dealer shall include all of the following:

1. A written verification that the manufactured home dealer

has in place a dealership arrangement or an established relationship

with a manufacturer to sell and advertise the manufacturer’s

new manufactured homes.

2. The title or other evidence of ownership for each used

manufactured home owned and offered for sale and the manufacturer’s

statement of origin information for each new manufactured

home owned and offered for sale. The manufactured home dealer

shall also have a factory invoice, a completed manufactured home

dealer reassignment form or a purchase contract evidencing

trade−in or purchase when a manufacturer or lending institution

is holding the title or manufacturer’s statement of origin of the

manufactured home.

3. A written selling agreement between the owner and the

manufactured home dealer for each manufactured home owned

by an individual and offered for sale or listed by the manufactured

home dealer.

4. The original or a copy of all manufactured home purchase

contracts, purchase orders and invoices. The records shall also

include a copy of form SBD−10687 as additional evidence of the

sale as well as information regarding collection of sales tax and

Wisconsin title and registration fees, if applicable.

5. A record of every manufactured home bought, sold,

exchanged, consigned, or listed that includes the following information:

date acquired, acquired from name and address, new or

used, year, model and identification number, date sold or disposed

of, disposed of or sold to name and address.

(f) Maintenance of records. The records under par. (e) shall

be maintained for 5 years. The records shall be open to inspection

and copying by the department during reasonable business hours.

(10) RENEWAL. (a) 1. A person may renew his or her

manufactured home dealer license.

2. A manufactured home dealer license shall be renewed in

accordance with s. Comm 5.07.

(b) The renewal of a license as a manufactured home dealer

shall be contingent upon the applicant providing the information

required under sub. (2) (d).

 

238. No person may engage in the business of selling manufactured homes to a consumer or to the retail market unless the person holds a license issued by the department as a licensed ________________.

 

            a. dwelling contractor

            b. dwelling contractor qualifier

            c. manufactured home dealer

            d. all of the above

 

239. A branch license shall also be obtained for each branch operated by the licensed manufactured home dealer to sell homes.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

240. Financial statement. A financial statement shall be filed on form SBD−10678 or the equivalent in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and be dated not more than ______ days prior to the date of application.

 

            a. 30

            b. 60

            c. 90

            d. none of the above

 

241. The person applying for a manufactured home dealer license shall be the a or.

 

            a. owner of the business

            b. partner in the business applying on behalf of a partnership

            c. the chairperson of the board or chief executive officer applying on behalf of the corporation

            d. all of the above

            e. only a & b

 

242. The use of false, deceptive or misleading advertising or representations by any licensee to induce the purchase of a manufactured home is acceptable.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

243. A person who holds a manufactured home dealer license shall post the license at the main business office and at any other locations.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

244. When advertising a manufactured home, a licensee shall state the model year of the home or whether the home is a new manufactured home or a used manufactured home.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

245. Whenever a sale or promotion offering gifts, merchandise, equipment, accessories, service, discounts, price reductions or cash is advertised, the advertisement shall specifically disclose the

 

            a. expiration terms

            b. date of the sale

            c. date of  promotion.

            d. all of the above

 

246. Unless otherwise specified in the contract, the offer to purchase is automatically voided if the licensee fails to accept or reject the offer by the close of the manufactured home dealer’s ______________.

 

            a. within 3 days

            b. next business day

            c. 48 hour

            d. 2nd business day

 

247. The purchase contract shall clearly state that cancellation of a manufactured home contract within one business day of acceptance by a manufactured home dealer may subject the retail purchaser to a penalty of up to ___% of the cash price of the manufactured home.

 

            a. 1

            b. 5

            c. 2

            d. 10

 

248. Any increase in price to a retail purchaser after the manufactured home dealer has accepted an offer is prohibited except when the price increase is due to any of the items in subds. 1. to 3.

 

            a. The addition of new equipment required by local, state or federal law.

            b. Local, state or federal tax changes.

c. The reappraisal of a trade-in unit that has suffered damage or is missing furnishings, appliances or accessories that were part of the trade-in unit at the time the purchase contract was executed.

            d. all of the above

            e. only a & b

 

249. The purchase contract shall include the name and address of the current titled owner if the manufactured home is _________ the licensee.

 

            a. consigned to

            b. listed by

            c. processed by

            d. only a or b

 

250. A licensee may assess a retail purchaser an additional service charge or fee for completing any sales related home inspection forms that are required by law or rule.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

251. Unless otherwise agreed to in the purchase contract, the inspection disclosures shall create any warranties, expressed or implied, or affect warranty coverage provided for in the purchase contract.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

252. Manufactured home dealers shall be permitted to display and sell manufactured homes at a temporary site other than the licensed place of business for not be used for longer than ___days.

 

            a. 20

            b. 30

            c. 60

            d. 90

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.325 Manufactured home salesperson.

(1) GENERAL. (a) Under s. 101.952 (1), Stats., no person may

engage in the business of selling manufactured homes to a consumer

or to the retail market unless the person holds a license

issued by the department as a licensed manufactured home salesperson.

A manufactured home dealer who acts as a manufactured

home salesperson shall secure a manufactured home salesperson

license in addition to the manufactured home dealer license.

(b) A manufactured home salesperson shall obtain a manufactured

home salesperson license for each manufactured home

dealer employing the manufactured home salesperson.

(2) APPLICATION FOR LICENSE. A person applying for a

manufactured home salesperson license shall submit all of the following:

(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.

(b) An application fee and a license fee in accordance with s.

Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.

(3) QUALIFICATIONS FOR LICENSE. A person applying for a

manufactured home salesperson license shall hold a manufactured

home dealer license issued by the department or shall be

employed by a person who holds a manufactured home dealer

license issued by the department.

(4) RESPONSIBILITIES. (a) A person who holds a manufactured

home salesperson license shall comply with the responsibilities

under ss. 101.952 (3), and 101.953, Stats.

Note: Section 101.952 (3), Stats., indicates that every licensee shall carry his or

her license when engaged in his or her business and display the same upon request.

The license shall name his or her employer, and, in case of a change of employer, the

manufactured home salesperson shall immediately mail his or her license to the

department, which shall endorse that change on the license without charge.

Note: See appendix for a reprint of section 101.953, Stats.

(b) A person who holds a manufactured home salesperson

license shall comply with the provisions under s. Comm 5.323 that

apply to a licensee.

(5) INVALID LICENSE. (a) A manufactured home salesperson

license shall remain valid until one of the following conditions

occur:

1. The manufactured home dealer license held by the

manufactured home salesperson’s current employer expires.

2. The manufactured home salesperson ceases employment

with a licensed manufactured home dealer.

3. The manufactured home salesperson’s employer goes out

of business.

4. The department suspends or revokes the manufactured

home salesperson’s license.

(b) A person whose manufactured home salesperson license

is invalidated by ceasing employment with a licensed manufactured

home dealer may request the department to transfer their

manufactured home salesperson license to a new employer without

charge, as long as the department receives the application

before the new employer’s manufactured home dealer license

expires.

(6) RENEWAL. (a) A person may renew his or her manufactured

home salesperson license.

(b) A manufactured home salesperson license shall be

renewed in accordance with s. Comm 5.07.

 

253. A manufactured home dealer who acts as a manufactured home salesperson shall secure a manufactured home salesperson license in addition to the manufactured home dealer license.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

254. A person applying for a manufactured home salesperson license shall a or shall be __________________________.

 

            a. hold manufactured home dealer license issued by the department

            b. employed by a person who holds a manufactured home dealer license issued by the department.

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

 

255. A manufactured home salesperson license shall remain valid until one of the following conditions occur:

           

            a. The manufactured home dealer license held by the manufactured home salesperson’s current employer expires.

            b. The manufactured home salesperson ceases employment with a licensed manufactured home dealer.

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

 

256. A manufactured home salesperson license shall remain valid until one of the following conditions occur:

 

            a. The manufactured home salesperson’s employer remains in business.

            b. The department suspends or revokes the manufactured home salesperson’s license.

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.327 Manufactured home installer. (1) GENERAL.

(a) Except as provided in par. (b), beginning on January 1,

2007, pursuant to s. 101.96, Stats., no person may install a

manufactured home onto a foundation or other support system

unless the person complies with one of the following conditions:

1. The person holds a license issued by the department as a

licensed manufactured home installer.

2. The person is under the general supervision of another person

who holds a license issued by the department as a licensed

manufactured home installer.

(b) 1. The owner of a manufactured home who will reside in

the home may install his or her own manufactured home without

holding a license as a licensed manufactured home installer. This

exemption does not apply to the owner who contracts for or otherwise

arranges for the installation.

2. A person is not required to hold a license as a licensed

manufactured home installer for electrical, plumbing or HVAC

work associated with the installation of a manufactured home.

Note: There may be other state or local licensing requirements involved in the

installation of manufactured homes.

(2) QUALIFICATIONS FOR LICENSE. A person applying for a

manufactured home installer license shall comply with all of the

following conditions:

(a) The person is at least 18 years old.

(b) The person has not been found responsible in any judicial

or administrative forum for any violation of s. 101.96, Stats., during

the 2 years before the date on which the person’s license

application is submitted.

Note: See appendix for a reprint of section 101.96, Stats.

(c) The person has not been found responsible in any judicial

or administrative forum during the 2 years before the date on

which the person’s license application is submitted for any failure

to perform an installation of a manufactured home as required

under contract or for defrauding any person with regard to the provision

of installation services.

(3) APPLICATION FOR LICENSE. (a) A person may apply for a

license as a licensed manufactured home installer by submitting

an application, an application fee and the license fee in accordance

with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02 and one of the following:

1. Evidence that the person holds a manufactured home

installer license issued by the federal department of housing and

urban development.

2. Evidence that the person holds a manufactured home

installer license issued by a state administrative agency (SAA)

that has an installer licensing program that is equivalent to the

rules under this section.

3. Evidence that the person has completed at least 12 hours

in an approved course or courses in the installation of manufactured

homes within one year prior to the date of application. The

course or courses shall include instruction in at least the following

subject matter and one or more tests on the subject matter:

a. Soil mechanics.

b. Site preparation.

c. Structural support, stabilization and anchorage.

d. Setting.

e. Ventilation of crawl spaces.

f. Connections, plumbing, electrical, HVAC.

g. Joining of home sections.

(b) 1. A person may apply for a license as a licensed manufactured

home installer by submitting an application, an application

fee and the license fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02

and evidence that the person has actively participated in the installation

of at least 10 manufactured homes.

2. This paragraph does not apply after June 1, 2007.

(4) RESPONSIBILITIES. A person who installs or supervises the

installation of manufactured homes as a licensed manufactured

home installer shall be responsible for compliance with the installation

requirements in chs. Comm 21 and 27.

(5) RENEWAL. (a) 1. A person may renew his or her license

as a manufactured home installer.

2. A manufactured home installer license shall be renewed in

accordance with s. Comm 5.07.

(b) 1. The renewal of a license as a manufactured home

installer shall be contingent upon the manufactured home installer

obtaining at least 12 hours of acceptable continuing education

within the time period specified in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06,

except as provided in subd. 2.

2. A person who holds a license as a manufactured home

installer may apply to the department for waiver of the continuing

education requirements under subd. 1. on the grounds of prolonged

illness or disability or similar circumstances. Each

application for waiver shall be considered individually on its merits

by the department.

(c) The renewal of a license as a manufactured home installer

shall be contingent upon all of the following conditions:

1. The person has not been found responsible in any judicial

or administrative forum for any violation of s. 101.96, Stats., during

the previous 2 years.

2. The person has not been found responsible in any judicial

or administrative forum during the previous 2 years for any failure

to perform an installation of a manufactured home as required

under contract or for defrauding any person with regard to the provision

of installation services.

 

257. Beginning on January 1, 2007, pursuant to s. 101.96, Stats., no person may install a manufactured home onto a foundation or other support system unless the person complies with one of the following conditions:

            a. The person holds a license issued by the department as a licensed manufactured home installer.

            b. The person is under the general supervision of another person who holds a license issued by   the department as a licensed manufactured home installer.

            c. The person holds a license issued by the department as a licensed UDC Building Contractor.

            d. all of the above

            e. only a & b

 

258. The owner of a manufactured home who will reside in the home may install his or her own manufactured home without holding a license as a licensed manufactured home installer.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

259. This exemption contained in question 141 does apply to the owner who contracts for or otherwise arranges for the installation.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

260. A person applying for a manufactured home installer license shall  be at least ___ years old.

 

            a. 16

            b. 18

            c. 21

            d. none of the above

 

261. A person who installs or supervises the installation of manufactured homes as a licensed manufactured home installer shall be responsible for compliance with the installation requirements in chs. Comm 21 and 27.

 

            a. 21 & 26

            b. 21-27

            c. 21 & 27

            d. 20-26

 

262. The renewal of a license as a manufactured home installer shall be contingent upon the manufactured home installer obtaining at least ____ hours of acceptable continuing education within the time period specified in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06, except as provided in subd. 2.

 

            a. 6

            b.18

            c. 12

            d. 24

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.63 Dwelling inspectors. (1) GENERAL. (a)

Pursuant to ss. 101.66 (2) and 101.96 (1), Stats., no person may

conduct the inspection of one− and 2−family dwellings for the

purpose of administering and enforcing chs. Comm 20 to 25,

unless the person holds one or more of the following certifications

issued by the department:

1. Certified UDC−construction inspector.

2. Certified UDC−electrical inspector.

3. Certified UDC−HVAC inspector.

4. Certified UDC−plumbing inspector.

5. Certified soil erosion inspector.

6. Certified commercial electrical inspector.

7. Certified commercial plumbing inspector.

Note: Pursuant to s. 101.14 (1) (bm), Stats., deputies of the department may perform

inspections for smoke detector installation and maintenance without holding a

certification issued by the department.

(b) A person who holds a certification as a:

1. Certified UDC−construction inspector may inspect one−

and 2−family dwellings for the purpose of administering and

enforcing chs. Comm 20 to 22.

2. Certified UDC−electrical inspector or certified commercial

electrical inspector may inspect one− and 2−family dwellings

for the purpose of administering and enforcing chs. Comm 16 and

24.

3. Certified UDC−HVAC inspector may inspect one− and

2−family dwellings for the purpose of administering and enforcing

ch. Comm 23.

4. Certified UDC−plumbing inspector or certified commercial

plumbing inspector may inspect one− and 2−family dwellings

for the purpose of administering and enforcing chs. Comm 25, 82

and 84.

5. Certified soil erosion inspector may inspect one− and

2−family dwellings for the purpose of administering and enforcing

s. Comm 21.125, and public buildings and places of employment

for the purpose of administering and enforcing ch. Comm

60.

(2) APPLICATION FOR EXAMINATION. A person applying to take

a UDC−construction inspector certification examination, UDC−

electrical inspector certification examination, UDC−HVAC

inspector certification examination, or UDC−plumbing inspector

certification examination shall submit all of the following:

(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.

(b) An application fee and examination fee in accordance with

s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.

(3) EXAMINATION. Except as provided in sub. (4) (a) 2., (b) 2.

and (c) 2., a person seeking to obtain a UDC−construction inspector

certification, UDC−electrical inspector certification, UDC−

HVAC inspector certification, or UDC−plumbing inspector certification

shall take and pass an examination in accordance with s.

Comm 5.09.

(4) APPLICATION FOR CERTIFICATIONS. (a) UDC−construction.

1. Upon notification of the successful passage of the examination

for a UDC−construction inspector certification, a person may

obtain the certification by submitting an application and the certification

fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.09 (7) (c).

2. A person may apply for certification as a certified UDC−

construction inspector by submitting all of the following:

a. An application, an application fee and the certification fee

in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02.

b. Evidence that the person holds a certification as a commercial

building inspector issued under s. Comm 5.61.

(b) UDC−electrical. 1. Upon notification of the successful

passage of the examination for a UDC−electrical inspector certification,

a person may obtain the certification by submitting an

application and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm

5.01 and 5.09 (7) (c).

2. A person may apply for certification as a certified UDC−

electrical inspector by submitting an application, an application

fee and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and

5.02 and one of the following:

a. Evidence that the person holds a certification as a journeyman

electrician issued under s. Comm 5.44.

b. Evidence that the person holds a certification issued under

the International Association of Electrical Inspectors/National

Fire Protection Association certification program as a certified

electrical inspector−residential.

(c) UDC−HVAC. 1. Upon notification of the successful passage

of the examination for a UDC−HVAC inspector certification,

a person may obtain the certification by submitting an application

and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and

5.09 (7) (c).

2. A person may apply for certification as a certified UDC−

HVAC inspector by submitting an application, an application fee

and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and

5.02 and one of the following:

a. Evidence that the person holds a certification as an HVAC

qualifier issued under s. Comm 5.71.

b. Evidence that the person holds a certification as a commercial

building inspector issued under s. Comm 5.61.

(d) UDC−plumbing. Upon notification of the successful passage

of the examination for a UDC−plumbing inspector certification,

a person may obtain the certification by submitting an

application and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm

5.01 and 5.09 (7) (c).

(e) Soil erosion. A person may apply for certification as a certified

soil erosion inspector by submitting all of the following:

1. An application, an application fee and the certification fee

in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02.

2. Evidence that the person has completed an approved training

course on soil erosion control standards.

(5) RESPONSIBILITIES. A person who inspects one− and 2−family

dwellings as a certified UDC−construction inspector, certified

UDC−electrical inspector, certified UDC−HVAC inspector, certified

UDC−plumbing inspector, or certified soil erosion inspector

shall:

(a) Maintain a record of the inspections made including the

dates and the findings of the inspections;

(b) Provide a copy of the inspection report to the property

owner or his or her agent, and

(c) Make available to the department upon request his or her

inspection records.

(5m) LIMITATIONS. A person who inspects the installation of

manufactured homes as a certified UDC−construction inspector

may not perform the inspection of a particular manufactured home

if the person is, is employed by, or is an independent contractor of

any of the following:

(a) A manufactured home manufacturer who was directly

involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.

(b) A manufactured home salesperson who was directly

involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.

(c) An installer who was directly involved in the sale of the particular

manufactured home.

(6) RENEWAL. (a) 1. A person may renew his or her certification

as a UDC−construction inspector, UDC−electrical inspector,

UDC−HVAC inspector, UDC−plumbing inspector or soil erosion

inspector.

2. An inspector certification under this section shall be

renewed in accordance with s. Comm 5.07.

(b) 1. a. The renewal of a certification as a certified UDC−

construction inspector, certified UDC−electrical inspector, certified

UDC−HVAC inspector, or certified UDC−plumbing inspector

which has an expiration date on or before June 30, 2006 shall

be contingent upon the inspector obtaining at least 12 hours of

acceptable continuing education within the time period specified

in s. Comm 5.08 and Table 5.06, except as provided in subd. 2.

b. The renewal of a certification as a certified UDC−construction

inspector, certified UDC−electrical inspector, certified

UDC−HVAC inspector, or certified UDC−plumbing inspector

which has an expiration date after June 30, 2006 shall be contingent

upon the inspector obtaining at least 24 hours of acceptable

continuing education within the time period specified in s. Comm

5.08 and Table 5.06, except as provided in subd. 2.

2. A person who holds a certification as a certified UDC−

construction inspector, certified UDC−electrical inspector, certified

UDC−HVAC inspector, or certified UDC−plumbing inspector

may apply to the department for waiver of the continuing

education requirements under subd. 1. on the grounds of prolonged

illness or disability or similar circumstances. Each

application for waiver shall be considered individually on its merits

by the department.

3. A person who initially obtained his or her UDC−construction

inspector certification or UDC−HVAC inspector certification

by providing evidence of certification as a commercial building

inspector and whose request to renew his or her certification is

denied because of the failure to fulfill the continuing education

requirements of subd. 1., shall be required to take and pass the

UDC−construction inspector certification examination or UDC−

HVAC inspector certification examination in order to reacquire

the respective UDC inspector certification

 

263. No person may conduct the inspection of one− and 2−family dwellings for the purpose of administering and enforcing chs. Comm 20 to 25, unless the person holds one or more of the following certifications issued by the department:

1. Certified UDC−construction inspector.

2. Certified UDC−electrical inspector.

3. Certified UDC−HVAC inspector.

4. Certified UDC−plumbing inspector.

5. Certified soil erosion inspector.

6. Certified commercial electrical inspector.

7. Certified commercial plumbing inspector.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

264. A person may apply for certification as a certified UDC−construction inspector by submitting all of the following:

 

a. An application, an application fee and the certification fee in accordance with ss. Comm 5.01 and 5.02.

b. Evidence that the person holds a certification as a commercial building inspector issued under s. Comm 5.61.

c. both a & b

d. neither a or b

 

265. A person who inspects the installation of manufactured homes as a certified UDC−construction inspector may not perform the inspection of a particular manufactured home if the person is, is employed by, or is an independent contractor of any of the following:

 

a. A manufactured home manufacturer who was directly involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.

b. A manufactured home salesperson who was directly involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.

c. An installer who was directly involved in the sale of the particular manufactured home.

d. all of the above

e. only a & c

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5.635 UDC inspection agency. (1) GENERAL.

No person may engage in or offer to engage in the activities of

facilitating plan review, issuance of Wisconsin uniform building

permits, or inspection of one− and 2−family dwellings in a municipality

where the department has jurisdiction pursuant to s.

101.651 (3) (b), Stats., unless the person obtains a registration

from the department as a registered UDC inspection agency.

Note: Section 990.01 (26), Stats., states that the term “person” includes all partnerships,

associations and bodies politic or corporate.

(2) APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION. A person applying for a

UDC inspection agency registration shall submit all of the following:

(a) An application in accordance with s. Comm 5.01.

(b) An application fee and a registration fee in accordance with

s. Comm 5.02, Table 5.02.

(3) QUALIFICATIONS FOR REGISTRATION. The person applying

for a UDC inspection agency registration shall be the owner of the

business, a partner in the business applying on behalf of a partnership,

or the chairman of the board or chief executive officer applying

on behalf of the corporation.

(4) RESPONSIBILITIES. A person who is responsible for facilitating

plan review, issuance of Wisconsin uniform building permits

and the inspections for one− and 2−family dwellings as a registered

UDC inspection agency shall be responsible for all of the

following:

(a) Utilizing persons appropriately certified under s. Comm

5.63 to review the plans, issue the permits and conduct the inspections.

(b) Making the records relative to the plan review, issuance of

permits and inspections available to the department upon request.

(c) Providing inspection services for all inspections required

under s. Comm 20.10.

(d) Cooperating with the department in any program monitoring,

enforcement activities, and investigations.

(e) Following all procedures established by the department for

UDC enforcement by inspection agencies.

(f) Reporting to the department in writing when the agency has

been dismissed by the owner or builder.

(g) Making any records associated with their permit, plan

review and inspection activities available to the permit holder

upon request.

(5) RENEWAL. (a) A person may renew his or her registration

as a UDC inspection agency.

(b) A UDC inspection agency registration shall be renewed in

accordance with s. Comm 5.07.

 

266. No person may engage in or offer to engage in the activities of facilitating plan review, issuance of Wisconsin uniform building permits, or inspection of one− and 2−family dwellings in a municipality where the department has jurisdiction pursuant to s.101.651 (3) (b), Stats., unless the person obtains a registration from the department as a registered UDC inspection agency.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

267. The person applying for a UDC inspection agency registration shall be the_______.

 

            a. owner of the business

b. a partner in the business applying on behalf of a partnership

c. the chairman of the board or chief executive officer applying on behalf of the corporation

d. all of the above

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

 

Use the below Comm 21.40 to answer questions 268-275

 

Comm 21.40 Installation standards. (1) (a) The

installation of a manufactured home produced on or after April 1,

2007 shall comply with procedures acceptable to the department.

(b) Acceptable installation procedures shall address all of the

following:

1. Soil mechanics.

2. Site preparation.

3. Structural support, stabilization and anchorage.

4. Setting.

5. Ventilation of crawl spaces.

6. Connections, plumbing, electrical, HVAC.

7. Joining of home sections.

Note: Acceptable installation practices can be found through the Safety and Buildings

Division’s website at www.commerce.state.wi.us/SB or by contacting the Safety

and Buildings Division at (608) 264−9596.

Note: The design and construction of basements and perimeter foundations to support

manufactured homes is addressed under subchapter V.

(2) (a) Except as provided in par. (b), the installation of a

manufactured home produced before April 1, 2007 shall be

installed in conformance with the requirements in effect at the

time the manufactured home was produced.

(b) The installation of a manufactured home produced before

April 1, 2007 to be installed on piers shall conform to at least all

of the following requirements:

1. No footing may be placed upon unprepared fill material,

topsoil, alluvial soil or mud. All organic matter shall be removed

from the area that will be beneath any footing.

2. The soil bearing capacity shall be determined through test

by a pocket penetrometer or other means of analysis. If the soil

bearing capacity under each intended pier location is less than

2000 pounds per square foot, piers shall be located in accordance

with the manufacturer’s instructions.

3. The home site shall be graded to permit water to drain from

under the home and away from the home for a minimum of 5 feet

from the home.

4. Every pier shall be supported by a footing. Each footing

shall be no less than a nominal 16 inches by 16 inches.

5. Each footing shall consist of one of the following:

a. One nominal 4–inch by 16–inch by 16–inch solid concrete

block or 2 nominal 4–inch by 8–inch by 16–inch solid concrete

blocks. If a single block pier and 2 footing blocks are used, the 2

footing blocks shall be positioned with the joint parallel to the

main frame. If a double block pier and 2 footing blocks are used,

the 2 footing blocks shall be positioned with the joint either parallel

or perpendicular to the main frame.

b. A 16–inch by 16–inch pad constructed of acrylonitrile−butadiene

styrene (ABS) having a rated load bearing capacity of not

less than 6000 pounds.

c. An 18–inch diameter hole bored to below the frost line or

to un-fractured bedrock and filled with poured concrete.

d. Any other materials and systems approved in advance by

the department.

6. Piers shall be constructed of concrete blocks, manufactured

steel stands or manufactured concrete stands. Manufactured

stands shall be labeled for use as piers for manufactured homes.

7. Piers constructed of single stacked concrete blocks shall be

limited to a height of 36 inches. Piers constructed of concrete

blocks and exceeding 36 inches but less than 80 inches shall be

constructed using double stacked blocks with each layer opposing

the direction of the layer underneath it. Piers constructed of concrete

blocks and exceeding 80 inches shall be constructed using

double blocks laid in concrete mortar with each layer opposing the

direction of the layer underneath it and with each core filled with

concrete and a 1/2–inch steel reinforcing rod.

8. All concrete blocks shall be 2–core design, construction

grade blocks having nominal dimensions of at least 8 inches by 8

inches by 16 inches. All concrete blocks shall be placed with the

cores open vertically. The concrete block nearest the main frame

of the manufactured home shall be perpendicular to the linear

direction of the frame. No concrete block may contact the main

frame of the home.

9. Alternative materials may be used for pier installations provided

they are approved in advance by the department.

10. Piers shall be placed under the main frame of the chassis

at intervals of not more than 7 feet on–center and no more than 3

feet from the exterior side of each end wall. The 7–foot spacing

requirement may be varied as permitted by footing, spacing and

soil capacity tables provided by the home manufacturer.

11. Piers shall be placed under the bearing points of

clear–span openings of 4 feet or more in center mating walls.

12. Piers shall be plumb and centered under the contact area

at the point of support.

13. Each pier shall be capped with a solid concrete block or

a solid wood block, having a nominal thickness of at least 2 inches.

The cap shall be the same width and length as the top of the pier.

The cap shall consist of no more than 2 pieces. Two–piece caps

shall be positioned with the joint perpendicular to the main frame.

14. Where shims are utilized, wood shims shall be installed

between the pier cap and the frame. Shims shall be driven from

opposing sides and shall be no less than 4 inches by 8 inches.

15. Wood caps and shims shall be at least equal to No. 2 spruce

pine fir having a minimum fiber bending stress rating of 1200 psi.

All wood caps shall be the same species of wood, and all shims

shall be the same species of wood.

16. The combination of a nominal 2−inch solid concrete block

or a nominal 2−inch wood cap plus shims shall not exceed 3 _

inches.

17. A minimum clearance of 12 inches shall be maintained

beneath the lowest point of the main frame in the area of any utility

connection. A minimum clearance of 12 inches shall also be maintained

under the home for at least 75% of the home. The remainder

of the home may be less than 12 inches above the ground but

may not touch the ground.

History: CR 05−113: cr. Register December 2006 No. 612, eff. 4−1−07.

 

268. What Code section covers the Manufactured Homes contained in Comm 21?

 

            a. 21.31

            b. 21.08

            c. 21.40

            d. all of the above

 

269. Acceptable installation procedures shall address all of the following:

 

a. Soil mechanics & Site preparation.

b. Structural support, stabilization and anchorage & Setting.

c. Ventilation of crawl spaces & Connections, plumbing, electrical, HVAC.

d. Joining of home sections.

e. all of the above

 

270. The installation of a manufactured home produced before April 1, 2007 shall be installed in conformance with the requirements in effect at the time the manufactured home was produced.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

271. The installation of a manufactured home produced before April 1, 2007 to be installed on piers shall conform to at least all of the following requirements:

 

a.. No footing may be placed upon unprepared fill material, topsoil, alluvial soil or mud. All organic matter shall be removed from the area that will be beneath any footing.

b. The soil bearing capacity shall be determined through test by a pocket penetrometer or other means of analysis. If the soil bearing capacity under each intended pier location is less than 2000 pounds per square foot, piers shall be located in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions.

            c. The home site shall be graded to permit water to drain from under the home and away from   the home for a minimum of 5 feet from the home.

            d. all of the above

 

272. Piers shall be plumb and centered under the contact area at the point of support.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

273. Each pier shall be capped with a solid concrete block or a solid wood block, having a nominal thickness of at least 2 inches. The cap shall be the same width and length as the top of the pier. The cap shall consist of no more than 2 pieces. Three, four, and two–piece caps shall be positioned with the joint perpendicular to the main frame.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

274. A minimum clearance of 12 inches shall be maintained beneath the lowest point of the main frame in the area of any utility connection. A minimum clearance of 12 inches shall also be maintained under the home for at least 50% of the home. The remainder of the home may be less than 12 inches above the ground and may touch the ground.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

275. The effective date for Comm 21.40 is 4-1-07.

 

            a. true

            b. false

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Comm 5 Definitions-Use below definitions to answer question 276-360

Comm 5.003 Definitions. In this chapter:

(1) “Approved” means accepted by the department.

(1m) “ASME” means American society of mechanical engineers.

(2) “Automatic fire sprinkler contractor” has the meaning

specified under s. 145.01 (1), Stats.

Note: Under section 145.01 (1), Stats., “automatic fire sprinkler contractor” means

any individual, firm or corporation who has paid the annual license fee and obtained

a license to conduct a business in the design, installation, maintenance or repair of

automatic fire sprinkler systems.

(3) “Automatic fire sprinkler system” has the meaning specified

under s. 145.01 (2), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (2), Stats., “automatic fire sprinkler system”, for fire protection

purposes, means an integrated system of underground and overhead piping

designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards. The system

includes a suitable water supply, such as a gravity tank, fire pump, reservoir or pressure

tank or connection beginning at the supply side of an approved gate valve located

at or near the property line where the pipe or piping system provides water used exclusively

for fire protection and related appurtenances and to standpipes connected to

automatic sprinkler systems. The portion of the sprinkler system above ground is a

network of specially sized or hydraulically designed piping installed in a building,

structure or area, generally overhead, and to which sprinklers are connected in a systematic

pattern. The system includes a controlling valve and a device for actuating

an alarm when the system is in operation. The system is usually activated by heat

from a fire and discharges water over the fire area.

(4) “Automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice” has the

meaning specified under s. 145.01 (3), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (3), Stats., “automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice”

means any person other than an automatic fire sprinkler system contractor or a journeyman

automatic fire sprinkler system fitter who is engaged in learning and assisting

in the installation of automatic fire sprinkler systems and who is indentured under ch.

106, Stats.

(5) “Blasting” means any method of loosening, moving or

shattering masses of solid matter by use of an explosive.

(6) “Blasting operation” means any enterprise or activity

involving blasting.

(6m) “Branch” means an office, other than the main business

office, involved in the sales of manufactured homes that advertises

as a sales location, displays new or used homes, takes sales

calls, is staffed by licensed salespersons, has signage of a licensed

dealer, and accepts offers or contracts on manufactured homes.

(6s) “Broker” means a manufactured home dealer who has no

sales lot, no inventory and no ownership interest in the manufactured

homes being sold.

(7) “Building permit” means an official document or certificate

granting permission to perform construction or erosion control

work, except for electrical, plumbing or HVAC, on a one− or

2−family dwelling.

(8) “Business establishment” means any industrial or commercial

organization or enterprise, including but not limited to a

proprietorship, partnership, firm, business trust, joint venture,

syndicate, corporation or association.

(8m) “Cash price” means the manufactured home dealer asking

price including dealer installed options and accessories and

additional dealer mark−up, profit and transportation charges,

minus the dollar value of cash discounts.

(9) “Combustible liquid” means a liquid with a flash point at

or above 100_F.

(10) “Conflict of interest” means a certified inspector inspecting

work in which the inspector or the inspector’s employer, other

than the state or a municipality, has participated or has a monetary

or personal interest.

(11) “Damage” means defects caused by reasons other than

normal wear through home age and usage.

(13) “Department” means the department of commerce.

(14) “Direct supervision” means to assume the responsibility

of an activity of others and its results by providing oversight and

guidance at the site where the activity is being conducted.

(15) “Dwelling contractor” means any person, firm or corporation

engaged in the business of performing construction or erosion

control work on a one− or 2− family dwelling.

Note: Pursuant to s. 101.654 (1) (b), Stats., “dwelling contractor” does not include

an owner of a dwelling who resides or will reside in the dwelling.

(16) “Electrical construction” means the installation of electrical

wiring. “Electrical construction” does not include the maintenance,

repair or fabrication of electrical equipment or the installation

of electrical wiring and equipment covered by ch. PSC 114.

(17) “Electrical wiring” means all equipment , wiring, material,

fittings, devices, appliances, fixtures and apparatus used for

the production, modification, regulation, control, distribution, utilization

or safeguarding of electrical energy for mechanical,

chemical, cosmetic, heating, lighting or similar purposes as covered

by the scope of ch. Comm 16.

(17m) “Financial statement” means a balance sheet showing

assets, liabilities and net worth.

(18) “Fireworks” has the meaning specified under s. 167.10

(1), Stats.

Note: Under s. 167.10 (1), Stats., “fireworks” means anything manufactured, processed

or packaged for exploding, emitting sparks or combustion which does not

have another common use, but does not include any of the following:

(a) Fuel or a lubricant.

(b) A firearm cartridge or shotgun shell.

(c) A flare used or possessed or sold for use as a signal in an emergency or in the

operation of a railway, aircraft, watercraft or motor vehicle.

(d) A match, cigarette lighter, stove, furnace, candle, lantern or space heater.

(e) A cap containing not more than one−quarter grain of explosive mixture, if the

cap is used or possessed or sold for use in a device which prevents direct bodily contact

with a cap when it is in place for explosion.

(f) A toy snake which contains no mercury.

(g) A model rocket engine.

(h) Tobacco and a tobacco product.

(i) A sparkler on a wire or wood stick not exceeding 36 inches in length that is

designed to produce audible or visible effects or to produce audible and visible

effects.

(j) A device designed to spray out paper confetti or streamers and which contains

less than one−quarter grain of explosive mixture.

(k) A fuseless device that is designed to produce audible or visible effects or audible

and visible effects, and that contains less than one−quarter grain of explosive mixture.

(L) A device that is designed primarily to burn pyrotechnic smoke−producing

mixtures, at a controlled rate, and that produces audible or visible effects, or audible

and visible effects.

(m) A cylindrical fountain that consists of one or more tubes and that is classified

by the federal department of transportation as a Division 1.4 explosive, as defined in

49 CFR 173.50.

(n) A cone fountain that is classified by the federal department of transportation

as a Division 1.4 explosive, as defined in 49 CFR 173.50.

(19) “Flammable liquid” means a liquid having a flash point

below 100_F and having a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psi

absolute at 100_F.

(20) “General supervision” means to assume the responsibility

of an activity of others and its results without being present at

the site where the activity is being conducted.

(21) “HVAC” means heating, ventilating and air conditioning.

(22) “HVAC equipment” means materials, piping, fittings,

devices, appliances, apparatus, controls and control wiring used

as part of or in connection with permanent heating, ventilating, air

conditioning or exhausting systems serving buildings. HVAC

equipment does not include residential bathroom fans and kitchen

hoods, water heaters, process heating equipment, and space heaters

such as masonry fireplaces and chimneys, factory−built fireplaces

and venting systems, decorative gas fireplaces, and wood−

burning stoves.

(23) “Incompetence” means conduct which evidences a lack

of competence or ability to discharge the duty required to protect

the health, safety and welfare of the public, lack of knowledge of

the fundamental principles of a particular trade or practice, or an

inability to apply those principles, or failure to maintain competency

in the current practices and methods applicable to the activity

and the state statutes and rules governing the activity.

(24) “Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter” has the

meaning specified under s. 145.01 (6), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (6), Stats., “journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter”

means any person other than an automatic fire sprinkler contractor who is engaged

in the practical installation of automatic fire sprinkler systems.

(25) “Journeyman plumber” has the meaning specified under

s. 145.01 (7), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (7), Stats., “journeyman plumber” means any person other

than a master plumber, who is engaged in the practical installation of plumbing.

(26) “Journeyman plumber−restricted” means a person

licensed under s. 145.14, Stats.

Note: See appendix for further explanatory material.

(26m) “Licensee” means any manufactured home dealer or

manufactured home salesperson or any person who is both a

manufactured home dealer and a manufactured home salesperson.

(27) “Listed device” has the meaning specified under s.

167.10 (1) (e), (f) and (i) to (n), Stats.

Note: See the note after the definition of “fireworks”, sub. (18), for the statutory

language of s. 167.10 (1) (e), (f) and (i) to (n).

(27e) “Main business office” means an office involved in the

sales of manufactured homes that is the primary management

location of the licensed manufactured home dealer.

(27m) “Manufactured home” has the meaning given in s.

101.91 (2), Stats.

Note: Under s. 101.91 (2), Stats., ”manufactured home” means any of the following:

(am) A structure that is designed to be used as a dwelling with or without a permanent

foundation and that is certified by the federal department of housing and urban

development as complying with the standards established under 42 USC 5401 to

5425.

(c) A mobile home, unless a mobile home is specifically excluded under the

applicable statute.

(27s) “Manufactured home dealer” has the meaning given in

s. 101.91 (3), Stats., except for a person who sells no more than

one new or used manufactured home in any one calendar year.

Note: Under s.101.91 (3), Stats., “manufactured home dealer” means a person

who, for a commission or other thing of value, sells, exchanges, buys or rents, or

offers or attempts to negotiate a sale or exchange of an interest in, manufactured

homes or who is engaged wholly or partially in the business of selling manufactured

homes, whether or not the manufactured homes are owned by the person, but does

not include:

(a) A receiver, trustee, personal representative, guardian, or other person

appointed by or acting under the judgment or order of any court.

(b) Any public officer while performing that officer’s official duty.

(c) Any employee of a person enumerated in par. (a) or (b).

(d) Any lender, as defined in s. 421.301 (22).

(e) A person transferring a manufactured home used for that person’s personal,

family or household purposes, if the transfer is an occasional sale and is not part of

the business of the transferor.

(27w) “Manufactured home community” has the meaning

given in s. 101.91 (5m), Stats.

Note: Under s. 101.91 (5m), Stats., “manufactured home community” means any

plot or plots of ground upon which 3 or more manufactured homes that are occupied

for dwelling or sleeping purposes are located. “Manufactured home community”

does not include a farm where the occupants of the manufactured homes are the

father, mother, son, daughter, brother or sister of the farm owner or operator or where

the occupants of the manufactured homes work on the farm.

(28) “Master plumber” has the meaning specified under s.

145.01 (8), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (8), Stats., “master plumber” means any person skilled in

the planning, superintending and the practical installation of plumbing and familiar

with the laws, rules and regulations governing the same.

(29) “Master plumber−restricted” means a person licensed

under s. 145.14, Stats.

Note: See appendix for further explanatory material.

(30) “Misconduct” means an act performed by an individual

relating to the responsibilities or duties for which the individual

has been licensed, registered or certified that jeopardizes the interests

of the public, including violation of federal or state laws, local

ordinances or administrative rules; preparation of deficient or falsified

reports; failure to submit information or reports required by

law or contract when requested by the municipality or the department;

conduct which evidences a lack of trustworthiness; misrepresentation

of qualifications such as education, experience or certification;

illegal entry of premises; misuse of funds; or

misrepresentation of authority.

(30m) “Multipurpose piping system” means a type of water

distribution system conveying potable water to plumbing fixtures

and appliances and automatic fire sprinklers with the intention of

serving both domestic water needs and fire protection needs

within a one− or 2−family dwelling or manufactured dwelling.

(31) “Municipality” means a city, village, town or county.

(32) “Negligence” means the failure to exercise the degree of

care and judgment to protect public health and safety normally

expected of an individual performing activities within the scope

of a license, certification or registration category.

(32e) “Net worth” means the difference between the asset and

liability values on a financial statement. Negative net worth is the

excess of liabilities over assets.

(32h) “New manufactured home” has the meaning given in s.

101.91 (11), Stats.

Note: Under s. 101.91 (11), Stats., “new manufactured home” means a manufactured

home that has never been occupied, used or sold for personal or business use.

(32m) “PECFA” means petroleum environmental cleanup

fund award, as established in s. 101.143, Stats.

(33) “Pipelayer” has the meaning specified under s. 145.01

(9), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (9), Stats., “pipelayer” means a person registered under s.

145.07 (11).

(34) “Plumbing” has the meaning specified under s. 145.01

(10), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (10), Stats., “plumbing” means and includes:

(a) All piping, fixtures, appliances, equipment, devices and appurtenances in

connection with the water supply, water distribution and drainage systems, including

hot water storage tanks, water softeners and water heaters connected with such water

and drainage systems and also includes the installation thereof.

(b) The construction, connection or installation of any drain or waste piping system

from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the

mains or other sewage system terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject

to easement for highway purposes, including private sewage systems, and the alteration

of any such systems, drains or waste piping.

(c) The water service piping from the outside or proposed outside foundation

walls of any building to the main or other water utility service terminal within bounds

of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes and its connections.

(d) The water pressure system other than municipal systems as provided in ch.

281.

(e) A plumbing and drainage system so designed and vent piping so installed as

to keep the air within the system in free circulation and movement; to prevent with

a margin of safety unequal air pressures of such force as might blow, siphon or affect

trap seals, or retard the discharge from plumbing fixtures, or permit sewer air to

escape into the building; to prohibit cross−connection, contamination or pollution of

the potable water supply and distribution systems; and to provide an adequate supply

of water to properly serve, cleanse and operate all fixtures, equipment, appurtenances

and appliances served by the plumbing system.

(35) “Plumbing appliance’ means any one of a class of plumbing

devices which is intended to perform a special function. The

operation or control of the appliance may be dependent upon one

or more energized components, such as motors, controls, heating

elements, or pressure or temperature sensing elements. The

devices may be manually adjusted or controlled by the user or

operator, or may operate automatically through one or more of the

following actions: a time cycle, a temperature range, a pressure

range, a measured volume or weight.

(36) “Plumbing apprentice” has the meaning specified under

s. 145.01 (11), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (11), Stats., “plumbing apprentice” means any person other

than a journeyman or master plumber who is engaged in learning and assisting in the

installation of plumbing and drainage.

(37) “Place of employment” has the meaning specified under

s. 101.01 (11), Stats.

Note: Under s. 101.01 (11), Stats., “place of employment” includes every place,

whether indoors or out or underground and the premises appurtenant thereto where

either temporarily or permanently any industry, trade or business is carried on, or

where any process or operation, directly or indirectly related to any industry, trade

or business, is carried on, and where any person is, directly or indirectly, employed

by another for direct or indirect gain or profit, but does not include any place where

persons are employed in private domestic service which does not involve the use of

mechanical power or in farming. “Farming” includes those activities specified in s.

102.04 (3), and also includes the transportation of farm products, supplies or equipment

directly to the farm by the operator of said farm or employees for use thereon,

if such activities are directly or indirectly for the purpose of producing commodities

for market, or as an accessory to such production. When used with relation to building

codes, “place of employment” does not include an adult family home, as defined

in s. 50.01 (1), or, except for the purposes of s. 101.11, a previously constructed building

used as a community−based residential facility, as defined in s. 50.01 (1g), which

serves 20 or fewer unrelated residents.

(38) “POWTS” means private onsite wastewater treatment

system and has the meaning specified under s. 145.01 (12), Stats.,

for “private sewage system”.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (12), Stats., “private sewage system” means a sewage treatment

and disposal system serving a single structure with a septic tank and soil absorption

field located on the same parcel as the structure. This term also means an alternative

sewage system approved by the department including a substitute for the septic

tank or soil absorption field, a holding tank, a system serving more than one structure

or a system located on a different parcel than the structure. A private sewage system

may be owned by the property owner or by a special purpose district.

(39) “Private interceptor main sewer” has the meaning specified

under s. Comm 81.01 (193).

Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (193) “private interceptor main sewer” means a privately

owned sewer serving 2 or more buildings and not directly controlled by a public

authority.

(40) “Private water main” has the meaning specified under s.

Comm 81.01 (195).

Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (195) “private water main” means a privately owned

water main serving 2 or more buildings and not directly controlled by a public authority.

(41) “Process piping” means that piping which is separated

from a water supply system or drain system by the appropriate

methods or means specified under ch. Comm 82 and is part of a

system used exclusively for refining, manufacturing, industrial or

shipping purposes of every character and description.

(42) “Public building” has the meaning specified under s.

101.01 (12), Stats.

Note: Under s. 101.01 (12), Stats., “public building” means any structure, including

exterior parts of such building, such as a porch, exterior platform or steps providing

means of ingress or egress, used in whole or in part as a place of resort, assemblage,

lodging, trade, traffic, occupancy, or use by the public or by 3 or more tenants.

When used in relation to building codes, “public building” does not include a previously

constructed building used as a community−based residential facility as

defined in s. 50.01 (1g) which serves 20 or fewer unrelated residents or an adult family

home, as defined in s. 50.01 (1).

(43) “Refrigeration equipment” has the meaning specified

under s. 101.177 (1) (c), Stats.

Note: Under s. 101.177 (1) (c), Stats., “refrigeration equipment” means mechanical

vapor compression refrigeration equipment except for a mobile air conditioner,

as defined in s. 100.45 (1) (b), Stats., or trailer refrigeration equipment, as defined in

s. 100.45 (1) (e), Stats.

(44) “Registered learner” has the meaning specified under s.

145.01 (13), Stats.

a restricted plumber licensee, who is learning a limited type of plumbing and is

engaged in assisting a restricted plumber licensee.

(45) “Rental unit” has the meaning specified under s. 101.122

(1) (e), Stats.

Note: Under s. 101.122 (1) (e), Stats., “rental unit” means any rented dwelling

units. “Rental unit” does not include:

1. Any building containing up to 4 dwelling units, one of which is owner−occupied.

2. Any building constructed after December 1, 1978, which contains up to 2

dwelling units and which is less than 10 years old.

3. Any building constructed after April 15, 1976, which contains more than 2

dwelling units and which is less than 10 years old.

4. Any dwelling unit not rented at any time from November 1 to March 31.

(46) ”Restricted plumber licensee” has the meaning specified

under s. 145.01 (14), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (14), Stats., “restricted plumber licensee” means any person

licensed as a master plumber (restricted) or a journeyman plumber (restricted) under

s. 145.14.

(46m) “Retail purchaser” means any purchaser not licensed

as a manufactured home dealer or a manufactured home salesperson.

(47) “Sanitary building sewer” has the meaning specified

under s. Comm 81.01 (45).

Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (45) “sanitary building sewer” means a building

sewer which conveys wastewater consisting in part of domestic wastewater.

(47m) “Site” means any plot of land which is owned or

rented, and used or intended to be used for the accommodation of

a manufactured home for residential purposes.

(48) “Storm building sewer” has the meaning specified under

s. Comm 81.01 (46).

Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (46) “storm building sewer” means a building sewer

which conveys storm water wastes or clear water wastes, or both.

(48m) “UDC” means chs. Comm 20 to 25, the Wisconsin uniform

dwelling code.

(48s) “Used manufactured home” has the meaning given in

s. 101.91 (12), Stats.

Note: Under s.101.91 (12), Stats., “used manufactured home” means a manufactured

home that has previously been occupied, used or sold for personal or business

use.

(49) “Utility contractor” has the meaning specified under s.

145.01 (15), Stats.

Note: Under s. 145.01 (15), Stats., “utility contractor” means a person licensed

under s. 145.07 (10).

(50) “Water service” has the meaning specified under s.

Comm 81.01 (282).

Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (282) “water service” means that portion of a water

supply system from the water main or private water supply to the building control

valve.

(51) “Water supply system” has the meaning specified under

s. Comm 81.01 (284).

Note: Under s. Comm 81.01 (284) “water supply system” means the piping of a

private water main, water service and water distribution system, fixture supply connectors,

fittings, valves, and appurtenances through which water is conveyed to

points of usage such as plumbing fixtures, plumbing appliances, water using equipment

or other piping systems to be served.

 

 276. __________________________ means a building sewer which conveys wastewater consisting in part of domestic wastewater.

 

            a. sanitary building sewer

            b. storm building sewer

            c. water service

            d. water supply system

 

277. _______________________ means a building sewer which conveys storm water wastes or clear water wastes, or both.

           

            a. sanitary building sewer

            b. storm building sewer

            c. water service

            d. water supply system

 

278. ­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­__________________________ means that portion of a water supply system from the water main or private water supply to the building control valve.

 

            a. sanitary building sewer

            b. storm building sewer

            c. water service

            d. water supply system

 

279. _________________________ means the piping of a private water main, water service and water distribution system, fixture supply connectors, fittings, valves, and appurtenances through which water is conveyed to points of usage such as plumbing fixtures, plumbing appliances, water using equipment or other piping systems to be served.

 

            a. sanitary building sewer

            b. storm building sewer

            c. water service

            d. water supply system

 

280. __________________________ means a person, other than a restricted plumber licensee, who is learning a limited type of plumbing and is engaged in assisting a restricted plumber licensee.

 

            a. registered learner

            b. rental unit

c. retail purchaser

d. site

 

281. __________________________ means any rented dwelling units.

 

a. registered learner

            b. rental unit

c. retail purchaser

d. site

 

282. ____________________ means any purchaser not licensed as a manufactured home dealer or a manufactured home salesperson.

 

a. registered learner

            b. rental unit

c. retail purchaser

d. site

 

283. _________________________ means any plot of land which is owned or rented, and used or intended to be used for the accommodation of a manufactured home for residential purposes.

 

a. registered learner

            b. rental unit

c. retail purchaser

d. site

 

284. Rental unit” does include: any building containing up to 4 dwelling units, one of which is owner−occupied.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

 

285. “Rental unit” does include:  any building constructed after December 1, 1978, which contains up to 2 dwelling units and which is less than 10 years old.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

286. “Rental unit” does include: any building constructed after April 15, 1976, which contains more than 2 dwelling units and which is less than 10 years old.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

287. “Rental unit” does include: any dwelling unit not rented at any time from November 1 to March 31.

           

            a. true

            b. false

 

288. ______________________ means any person licensed as a master plumber (restricted) or a journeyman plumber (restricted) under s. 145.14.

 

            a. restricted plumber licensee

b. Master plumber−restricted

c. plumbing apprentice

d. master plumber

 

289. ______________________ means a person licensed under s. 145.14, Stats.

 

            a. restricted plumber licensee

b. Master plumber−restricted

c. plumbing apprentice

d. master plumber

 

290. ______________________ means any person other than a journeyman or master plumber who is engaged in learning and assisting in the installation of plumbing and drainage.

 

            a. restricted plumber licensee

b. Master plumber−restricted

c. plumbing apprentice

d. master plumber

 

291. ______________________ means any person skilled in the planning, superintending and the practical installation of plumbing and familiar with the laws, rules and regulations governing the same.

 

            a. restricted plumber licensee

b. Master plumber−restricted

c. plumbing apprentice

d. master plumber

 

292. ____________________ means any structure, including exterior parts of such building, such as a porch, exterior platform or steps providing means of ingress or egress, used in whole or in part as a place of resort, assemblage, lodging, trade, traffic, occupancy, or use by the public or by 3 or more tenants.

 

            a. public building

            b. UDC

            c. POWTS

d. place of employment

 

293. ____________________ means chs. Comm 20 to 25, the Wisconsin uniform dwelling code.

 

            a. public building

            b. UDC

            c. POWTS

d. place of employment

 

294. ____________________ means private onsite wastewater treatment system and has the meaning specified under s. 145.01 (12), Stats., for “private sewage system”.

 

            a. public building

            b. UDC

            c. POWTS

d. place of employment

 

295. ____________________ place of employment” includes every place, whether indoors or out or underground and the premises appurtenant thereto where either temporarily or permanently any industry, trade or business is carried on, or where any process or operation, directly or indirectly related to any industry, trade or business, is carried on, and where any person is, directly or indirectly, employed by another for direct or indirect gain or profit, but does not include any place where persons are employed in private domestic service which does not involve the use of mechanical power or in farming.

 

            a. public building

            b. UDC

            c. POWTS

d. place of employment

 

296. “public building” means any structure, including exterior parts of such building, such as a porch, exterior platform or steps providing means of ingress or egress, used in whole or in part as a place of resort, assemblage, lodging, trade, traffic, occupancy, or use by the public or by ____ or more tenants.

 

            a. 2

            b. 3

            c. 4

            d. 20

 

297. When used in relation to building codes, “public building” does not include a previously constructed building used as a community−based residential facility as defined in s. 50.01 (1g) which serves ____ or fewer unrelated residents or an adult family

home, as defined in s. 50.01 (1).

 

            a. 2

            b. 3

            c. 4

            d. 20

 

298. “place of employment” includes every place, whether indoors or out or underground and the premises appurtenant thereto where either temporarily or permanently any industry, trade or business is carried on, or where any process or operation, directly or indirectly related to any ____________________, is carried on, and where any person is, directly or indirectly, employed by another for direct or indirect gain or profit, but does not include any place where persons are employed in private domestic service which does not involve the use of mechanical power or in farming.

 

            a. industry

            b. trade

            c. business

            d. all of the above

 

299. ________________ includes those activities specified in s. 102.04 (3), and also includes the transportation of farm products, supplies or equipment directly to the farm by the operator of said farm or employees for use thereon, if such activities are directly or indirectly for the purpose of producing commodities for market, or as an accessory to such production.

 

            a. farming

            b. place of business

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

 

300. _________________ means a sewage treatment and disposal system serving a single structure with a septic tank and soil absorption field located on the same parcel as the structure. This term also means an alternative sewage system approved by the department including a substitute for the septic tank or soil absorption field, a holding tank, a system serving more than one structure or a system located on a different parcel than the structure. A private sewage system may be owned by the property owner or by a special purpose district.

 

            a. private sewage system

            b. Powts

            c. both a & b

            d. neither a or b

 

301. ______________________  means a privately owned water main serving 2 or more buildings and not directly controlled by a public authority.

 

            a. private water main

            b. PECFA

            c. plumbing appliance

            d. process piping

 

302. _____________________________ means petroleum environmental cleanup fund award, as established in s. 101.143, Stats.

 

            a. private water main

            b. PECFA

            c. plumbing appliance

            d. process piping

 

303. _____________________________ means any one of a class of plumbing devices which is intended to perform a special function. The operation or control of the appliance may be dependent upon one or more energized components, such as motors, controls, heating elements, or pressure or temperature sensing elements. The devices may be manually adjusted or controlled by the user or operator, or may operate automatically through one or more of the following actions: a time cycle, a temperature range, a pressure range, a measured volume or weight.

 

            a. private water main

            b. PECFA

            c. plumbing appliance

            d. process piping

 

304._____________________________ means that piping which is separated from a water supply system or drain system by the appropriate methods or means specified under ch. Comm 82 and is part of a system used exclusively for refining, manufacturing, industrial or shipping purposes of every character and description.

 

            a. private water main

            b. PECFA

            c. plumbing appliance

            d. process piping

 

305. “plumbing” means and includes: all piping, fixtures, appliances, equipment, devices and appurtenances in connection with the water supply, water distribution and drainage systems, including hot water storage tanks, water softeners and water heaters connected with such water and drainage systems and also includes the installation thereof.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

306. “plumbing” means and includes: the construction, connection or installation of any drain or waste piping system from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the mains or other sewage system terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes, including private sewage systems, and the alteration of any such systems, drains or waste piping.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

307. “Plumbing” means and includes: the water service piping from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the main or other water utility service terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes and its connections.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

308. “Plumbing” means and includes: the water pressure system other than municipal systems as provided in ch. 281.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

309. “Plumbing” means and includes: a plumbing and drainage system so designed and vent piping so installed as to keep the air within the system in free circulation and movement; to prevent with a margin of safety unequal air pressures of such force as might blow, siphon or affect trap seals, or retard the discharge from plumbing fixtures, or permit sewer air to escape into the building; to prohibit cross−connection, contamination or pollution of the potable water supply and distribution systems; and to provide an adequate supply of water to properly serve, cleanse and operate all fixtures, equipment, appurtenances and appliances served by the plumbing system.

 

            a. true

            b. false

 

310. ___________________________ means any plot or plots of ground upon which 3 or more manufactured homes that are occupied for dwelling or sleeping purposes are located. “Manufactured home community” does not include a farm where the occupants of the manufactured homes are the father, mother, son, daughter, brother or sister of the farm owner or operator or where the occupants of the manufactured homes work on the farm.

 

            a. manufactured home community

            b. Municipality

            c. New manufactured home

            d. Use manufactured home

311. ___________________________ means a city, village, town or county.

 

            a. manufactured home community

            b. Municipality

            c. New manufactured home

            d. Use manufactured home

 

 

312. ___________________________ means a manufactured home that has never been occupied, used or sold for personal or business use.

 

            a. manufactured home community

            b. Municipality

            c. New manufactured home

            d. Use manufactured home

 

313. ____________________________ means a manufactured home that has previously been occupied, used or sold for personal or business use.

 

            a. manufactured home community

            b. Municipality

            c. New manufactured home

            d. Use manufactured home

 

314. ______________________________ means 12 consecutive months.

 

            a. year

b. Main business office

c. Listed device

d. General supervision

 

315. ______________________________ means an office involved in the sales of manufactured homes that is the primary management location of the licensed manufactured home dealer.

 

            a. year

b. Main business office

c. Listed device

d. General supervision

 

316. ______________________________ has the meaning specified under s. 167.10 (1) (e), (f) and (i) to (n), Stats.

 

            a. year

b. Main business office

c. Listed device

d. General supervision

 

317. ______________________________ means to assume the responsibility of an activity of others and its results without being present at the site where the activity is being conducted.

 

            a. year

b. Main business office

c. Listed device

d. General supervision

 

318. _________________________ means conduct which evidences a lack of competence or ability to discharge the duty required to protect the health, safety and welfare of the public, lack of knowledge of the fundamental principles of a particular trade or practice, or an inability to apply those principles, or failure to maintain competency in the current practices and methods applicable to the activity and the state statutes and rules governing the activity.

 

            a. Incompetence

            b. Misconduct

            c. Conflict of interest

            d. Damage

 

319. _________________________ means an act performed by an individual relating to the responsibilities or duties for which the individual has been licensed, registered or certified that jeopardizes the interests of the public, including violation of federal or state laws, local ordinances or administrative rules; preparation of deficient or falsified reports; failure to submit information or reports required by law or contract when requested by the municipality or the department; conduct which evidences a lack of trustworthiness; misrepresentation of qualifications such as education, experience or certification; illegal entry of premises; misuse of funds; or misrepresentation of authority.

 

            a. Incompetence

            b. Misconduct

            c. Conflict of interest

            d. Damage

 

320. _________________________ means a certified inspector inspecting work in which the inspector or the inspector’s employer, other than the state or a municipality, has participated or has a monetary or personal interest.

 

            a. Incompetence

            b. Misconduct

            c. Conflict of interest

            d. Damage

 

321. _________________________ means defects caused by reasons other than normal wear through home age and usage.

 

            a. Incompetence

            b. Misconduct

            c. Conflict of interest

            d. Damage

 

322. ___________________________ means any industrial or commercial organization or enterprise, including but not limited to a proprietorship, partnership, firm, business trust, joint venture, syndicate, corporation or association.

 

            a. Business Establishment

            b. Department of Commerce

            c. Direct supervision

            d. Broker

 

323. _____________________________ means the department of commerce.

 

            a. Business Establishment

            b. Department of Commerce

            c. Direct supervision

            d. Broker

 

324. _____________________________ means to assume the responsibility of an activity of others and its results by providing oversight and guidance at the site where the activity is being conducted.

 

            a. Business Establishment

            b. Department of Commerce

            c. Direct supervision

            d. Broker

 

325. _____________________________ means a manufactured home dealer who has no sales lot, no inventory and no ownership interest in the manufactured homes being sold.

 

            a. Business Establishment

            b. Department of Commerce

            c. Direct supervision

            d. Broker

 

326. ______________________________ means accepted by the department.

 

            a. Approved

            b. ASME

            c. Branch

            d. Cash price

 

327. ______________________________  means American society of mechanical engineers.

                                                                             

            a. Approved

            b. ASME

            c. Branch

            d. Cash price

 

328. ______________________________ means an office, other than the main business office, involved in the sales of manufactured homes that advertises as a sales location, displays new or used homes, takes sales calls, is staffed by licensed salespersons, has signage of a licensed dealer, and accepts offers or contracts on manufactured homes.

 

            a. Approved

            b. ASME

            c. Branch

            d. Cash price

 

329._______________________________ means the manufactured home dealer asking price including dealer installed options and accessories and additional dealer mark−up, profit and transportation charges, minus the dollar value of cash discounts.

 

            a. Approved

            b. ASME

            c. Branch

            d. Cash price

 

330. _______________________________ means an official document or certificate granting permission to perform construction or erosion control work, except for electrical, plumbing or HVAC, on a one− or 2−family dwelling.

 

            a. Building permit

            b. Dwelling contractor

            c. Financial Statement

            d. Licensee

 

331. _______________________________ means any person, firm or corporation engaged in the business of performing construction or erosion control work on a one− or 2− family dwelling.

 

            a. Building permit

            b. Dwelling contractor

            c. Financial Statement

            d. Licensee

 

332. _______________________________ means a balance sheet showing assets, liabilities and net worth.

 

            a. Building permit

            b. Dwelling contractor

            c. Financial Statement

            d. Licensee

 

333. _______________________________ means any manufactured home dealer or manufactured home salesperson or any person who is both a manufactured home dealer and a manufactured home salesperson.

 

            a. Building permit

            b. Dwelling contractor

            c. Financial Statement

            d. Licensee

 

334. ________________________________ means a person licensed under s. 145.14, Stats.

 

            a. Journeyman plumber−restricted

            b. Journeyman plumber

            c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter

            d. Automatic fire sprinkler system

            e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice

            f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor

335._________________________________ means any person other than a master plumber, who is engaged in the practical installation of plumbing.

 

            a. Journeyman plumber−restricted

            b. Journeyman plumber

            c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter

            d. Automatic fire sprinkler system

            e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice

            f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor

 

336._________________________________ means any person other than an automatic fire sprinkler contractor who is engaged in the practical installation of automatic fire sprinkler systems.

 

            a. Journeyman plumber−restricted

            b. Journeyman plumber

            c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter

            d. Automatic fire sprinkler system

            e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice

            f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor

 

337. _________________________________ for fire protection purposes, means an integrated system of underground and overhead piping designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards.

 

            a. Journeyman plumber−restricted

            b. Journeyman plumber

            c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter

            d. Automatic fire sprinkler system

            e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice

            f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor

 

338. _________________________________ means any person other than an automatic fire sprinkler system contractor or a journeyman automatic fire sprinkler system fitter who is engaged in learning and assisting in the installation of automatic fire sprinkler systems and who is indentured under ch.106, Stats.

 

            a. Journeyman plumber−restricted

            b. Journeyman plumber

            c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter

            d. Automatic fire sprinkler system

            e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice

            f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor

339. _________________________________ means any individual, firm or corporation who has paid the annual license fee and obtained a license to conduct a business in the design, installation, maintenance or repair of automatic fire sprinkler systems.

 

            a. Journeyman plumber−restricted

            b. Journeyman plumber

            c. Journeyman automatic fire sprinkler fitter

            d. Automatic fire sprinkler system

            e. automatic fire sprinkler system apprentice

            f. automatic fire sprinkler contractor

 

340 ______________________________ means any method of loosening, moving or shattering masses of solid matter by use of an explosive.

 

            a. Blasting

            b. Blasting Operation

            c. Fireworks

            d. Flammable Liquid

 

341. ______________________________ means any enterprise or activity involving blasting.

 

            a. Blasting

            b. Blasting Operation

            c. Fireworks

            d. Flammable Liquid

 

342. ______________________________ means anything manufactured, processed or packaged for exploding, emitting sparks or combustion which does not have another common use

 

            a. Blasting

            b. Blasting Operation

            c. Fireworks

            d. Flammable Liquid

 

343._______________________________ means a liquid having a flash point below 100_F and having a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psi absolute at 100_F.

 

            a. Blasting

            b. Blasting Operation

            c. Fireworks

            d. Flammable Liquid

 

344.__________________________ means a privately owned sewer serving 2 or more buildings and not directly controlled by a public authority.

 

            a. private interceptor main sewer

            b. Multipurpose piping system

            c. refrigeration equipment

            d. HVAC

            e. HVAC equipment

345. __________________________ means a type of water distribution system conveying potable water to plumbing fixtures and appliances and automatic fire sprinklers with the intention of serving both domestic water needs and fire protection needs within a one− or 2−family dwelling or manufactured dwelling.

 

            a. private interceptor main sewer

            b. Multipurpose piping system

            c. refrigeration equipment

            d. HVAC

            e. HVAC equipment

346. __________________________ means mechanical vapor compression refrigeration equipment except for a mobile air conditioner, as defined in s. 100.45 (1) (b), Stats., or trailer refrigeration equipment, as defined in s. 100.45 (1) (e), Stats.

 

            a. private interceptor main sewer

            b. Multipurpose piping system

            c. refrigeration equipment

            d. HVAC

            e. HVAC equipment

 

347. __________________________ means heating, ventilating and air conditioning.

 

            a. private interceptor main sewer

            b. Multipurpose piping system

            c. refrigeration equipment

            d. HVAC

            e. HVAC equipment

 

348. __________________________ means materials, piping, fittings, devices, appliances, apparatus, controls and control wiring used as part of or in connection with permanent heating, ventilating, air conditioning or exhausting systems serving buildings. HVAC equipment does not include residential bathroom fans and kitchen hoods, water heaters, process heating equipment, and space heaters such as masonry fireplaces and chimneys, factory−built fireplaces and venting systems, decorative gas fireplaces, and wood−burning stoves.

 

            a. private interceptor main sewer

            b. Multipurpose piping system

            c. refrigeration equipment

            d. HVAC

            e. HVAC equipment

 

349. ___________________________ means the installation of electrical wiring. _________________ does not include the maintenance, repair or fabrication of electrical equipment or the installation of electrical wiring and equipment covered by ch. PSC 114.

 

            a. Electrical Construction

            b. Electrical wiring

            c. Utility Contractor

            d. Pipelayer

350. ___________________________ means all equipment , wiring, material, fittings, devices, appliances, fixtures and apparatus used for the production, modification, regulation, control, distribution, utilization or safeguarding of electrical energy for mechanical, chemical, cosmetic, heating, lighting or similar purposes as covered by the scope of ch. Comm 16.

 

            a. Electrical Construction

            b. Electrical wiring

            c. Utility Contractor

            d. Pipelayer

 

351. ___________________________  means a person licensed under s. 145.07 (10).

 

            a. Electrical Construction

            b. Electrical wiring

            c. Utility Contractor

            d. Pipelayer

 

352. ___________________________ means a person registered under s. 145.07 (11).

 

            a. Electrical Construction

            b. Electrical wiring

            c. Utility Contractor

            d. Pipelayer

 

353. ___________________________ means the failure to exercise the degree of care and judgment to protect public health and safety normally expected of an individual performing activities within the scope of a license, certification or registration category.

 

            a. Negligence

            b. Net worth

            c. Manufactured home dealer

            d. Manufactured home

 

354. ___________________________ means the difference between the asset and liability values on a financial statement. Negative net worth is the excess of liabilities over assets.

 

            a. Negligence

            b. Net worth

            c. Manufactured home dealer

            d. Manufactured home

           

355. ___________________________ means a person who, for a commission or other thing of value, sells, exchanges, buys or rents, or offers or attempts to negotiate a sale or exchange of an interest in, manufactured homes or who is engaged wholly or partially in the business of selling manufactured homes, whether or not the manufactured homes are owned by the person, but does not include:

 

            a. Negligence

            b. Net worth

            c. Manufactured home dealer

            d. Manufactured home

 

356. ___________________________ has the meaning given in s. 101.91 (2), Stats.

 

            a. Negligence

            b. Net worth

            c. Manufactured home dealer

            d. Manufactured home

 

357. “Manufactured home” means any of the following:

a.  A structure that is designed to be used as a dwelling with or without a permanent

foundation

b. Is certified by the federal department of housing and urban development as complying with the standards established under 42 USC 5401 to 5425.

c. A mobile home, unless a mobile home is specifically excluded under the applicable statute.

            d. all of the above.

 

358. “manufactured home dealer” means a person who, for a commission or other thing of value, sells, exchanges, buys or rents, or offers or attempts to negotiate a sale or exchange of an interest in, manufactured homes or who is engaged wholly or partially in the business of selling manufactured homes, whether or not the manufactured homes are owned by the person, but does not include:

 

a. A receiver, trustee, personal representative, guardian, or other person appointed by or acting under the judgment or order of any court.

b. Any public officer while performing that officer’s official duty.

c. Any employee of a person enumerated in par. (a) or (b).

d. Any lender, as defined in s. 421.301 (22).

e. A person transferring a manufactured home used for that person’s personal, family or household purposes, if the transfer is an occasional sale and is not part of the business of the transferor.

            f. all of the above.

 

359. “Plumbing” means and includes:

a. All piping, fixtures, appliances, equipment, devices and appurtenances in connection with the water supply, water distribution and drainage systems, including hot water storage tanks, water softeners and water heaters connected with such water and drainage systems and also includes the installation thereof.

b.  The construction, connection or installation of any drain or waste piping system from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the mains or other sewage system terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes, including private sewage systems, and the alteration of any such systems, drains or waste piping.

c.  The water service piping from the outside or proposed outside foundation walls of any building to the main or other water utility service terminal within bounds of, or beneath an area subject to easement for highway purposes and its connections.

            d. all of the above

 

360. “Plumbing” means and includes:

 

a. The water pressure system other than municipal systems as provided in ch.281.

b. A plumbing and drainage system so designed and vent piping so installed as to keep the air within the system in free circulation and movement; to prevent with a margin of safety unequal air pressures of such force as might blow, siphon or affect trap seals, or retard the discharge from plumbing fixtures, or permit sewer air to escape into the building; to prohibit cross−connection, contamination or pollution of the potable water supply and distribution systems; and to provide an adequate supply of water to properly serve, cleanse and operate all fixtures, equipment, appurtenances and appliances served by the plumbing system.

c. neither a or b.

d. both a & b.

 

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

To obtain your Continuing Education Credits follow the below instructions. 

  1. Print out first.
  2. Mail only the answer sheet to save on postage and to retain a copy of your completed course material.
  3. Fill in all fields applicable.
  4. Include your certification or license number if applicable.
  5. We’ll mail you back a verification form to send into the State with the Credential Application.

 Send by mail

  1. Test or answer sheet.
  2. Fill out this form below completely.
  3. Applicable fees by check payable to Gary Klinka.
  4. Mail to: Gary Klinka at 228 Mandella Ct Neenah WI 54956.
  5. Questions: 920-727-9200 office and fax or 920-740-6723 cell or 920-740-4119 cell
  6. Email: garyklinka@hotmail.com   

-----------------------------Educational Course Attendance Verification Form -----------------------------

Attendee’s Name                                                                                 Date                                           

Address                                                                                                                                                   

Credential Number                                                       Phone#                                                               

Course Title and Name       Initial Manufactured Home Installer Qualifier Quiz                                   

 List each credential held by attendee                                                                                                         

                                                                                     Credited Hours                   12 hrs                       

Email address                                                                                   Fax#                                                

 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

 To be completed by Gary Klinka         www.garyklinka.com                My credential link #70172

 Course Password                                                          Course ID#                                                      

 Attendee passed the course with a greater than 70% score on Date                                               

 Instructor Signature                                                                                                                                  

www.garyklinka.com